General Awareness
Q.1. On which one of the following ‘Head of Expenses’, the expenses of the Government of India are highest?
(1) Food subsidy
(2) Fertilizer subsidy
(3) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(4) Maintenance of national highways
(5) Oil subsidy
Q.2. Which one of the following foreign agencies will assist the municipal agencies to improve quality of municipal school through its School Excellence Programmes (SPE)?
(1) IMF
(2) UNDP
(3) UNICEF
(4) ADB
(5) None of these
Q.3. Which of the following carries out ‘Open Market Operations?
(1) Financial Ministry
(2) External Affairs Ministry
(3) Reserve Bank of India
(4) Planning Commission
(5) Ministry of Commerce
Q.4. Who among the following Minister will hold telecom portfolio in addition to his own portfolio till next reallotment?
(1) Kamal Nath
(2) Kapil Sibal
(3) Pranab Mukherjee
(4) Mamta Banerjee
(5) None of these
Q.5. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, the RBI issues directives to the Banks in India?
(1) RBI Act
(2) Banking Regulation Act
(3) Essential Commodities Act
(4) RBI and Banking Regulation Act
(5) None of these
Q.6. Which one of the following tools is used by RBI for selective credit control?
(1) It advises banks to lend against certain commodities
(2) It advises bank to recall the loans for advances against certain commodities
(3) It advises banks to charge higher rate of interest for advance against certain commodities
(4) It discourages certain kinds of lending by assigning higher risk weights to loans it deems undesirable
( 5) None of these
Q.7. For which one of the following Loan Products ‘teaser loans’ are offered by Banks?
(1) Education Loans
(2) Commercial Loans
(3) Loans against security of gold
(4) Retail Trade Loans
(5) Home Loans
Q.8. The Commonwealth Games 2010 were held in Delhi from October 3 to 14, 2010. Who amongst the following picked up the Game’s first gold medal?
(1) Augustina Nwaokolo
(2) Ravinder Singh
(3) Azhar Hussain
(4) Carol Huynh
(5) None of these
Q.9. In which one of the following cities was the recent meet of G-20 Countries organised?
(1) Tokyo
(2) Seoul
(3) London
(4) Beijing
(5) Singapore
Q.10. As per recent newspaper reports, which one of the following countries (among the given) has highest literacy rate?
(1) India
(2) Sri Lanka
(3) China
(4) Vietnam
(5) Bangladesh
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Wednesday 7 December 2011
English Language
English Language
Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word / phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
Q.1. The actress, who was in the city for the press conference of her dance reality show, says the chose the show because of her passionate for dance.
(1) begin passion in dance
(2) passionate for dancing
(3) being passionate in dancing
(4) passion of dance
(5) No correction required
Q.2. Despite of several representations and reminders, the district administration had not taken any action to stem the systematic encroachment of water bodies.
(1) Because of
(2) Despite
(3) Although
(4) Inspite
(5) No correction required
Q.3. While it is well-known that there are large-scale leakages from the public distribution system across the country, there are many states which have manage successful reform the public distribution system and deliver food grain to the poor.
(1) managed to successfully reform
(2) managed successful reforms
(3) managing successfully to reform
(4) managed for successfully reforming
(5) No correction required
Q.4. The four-day workshop is being conducted for gear up administration to the changes that will follow with the implementation of the Right to Compulsory and Free Education Act 2009.
(1) so geared up
(2) to gear up
(3) for geared up
(4) to gearing up
(5) No correction required
Q.5. The court refused to provide relieve to the petitioner and stated that plying of all diesel vehicles was banned with immediate effect.
(1) provision of relief
(2) providing of relieve
(3) provide any relief
(4) provide relieving
(5) No correction required
Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Building of these structures requires a lot of fuel to be burnt which emits a large amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
(B) The major source of carbon dioxide is power plants.
(C) Another twenty percent of carbon dioxide emitted in the atmosphere comes from burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
(D) Buildings, both commercial and residential represent in the atmosphere comes from burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
(E) The major cause of global warming is the emission of green house gases like carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide etc. into the atmosphere.
(F) These power plants emit large amounts of carbon dioxide produced from burning of fossil fuels for the purpose of electricity generation.
Q.6. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B (5) A
Q.7. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D (5) F
Q.8. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.9. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.10. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B
(5) A
Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word / phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
Q.1. The actress, who was in the city for the press conference of her dance reality show, says the chose the show because of her passionate for dance.
(1) begin passion in dance
(2) passionate for dancing
(3) being passionate in dancing
(4) passion of dance
(5) No correction required
Q.2. Despite of several representations and reminders, the district administration had not taken any action to stem the systematic encroachment of water bodies.
(1) Because of
(2) Despite
(3) Although
(4) Inspite
(5) No correction required
Q.3. While it is well-known that there are large-scale leakages from the public distribution system across the country, there are many states which have manage successful reform the public distribution system and deliver food grain to the poor.
(1) managed to successfully reform
(2) managed successful reforms
(3) managing successfully to reform
(4) managed for successfully reforming
(5) No correction required
Q.4. The four-day workshop is being conducted for gear up administration to the changes that will follow with the implementation of the Right to Compulsory and Free Education Act 2009.
(1) so geared up
(2) to gear up
(3) for geared up
(4) to gearing up
(5) No correction required
Q.5. The court refused to provide relieve to the petitioner and stated that plying of all diesel vehicles was banned with immediate effect.
(1) provision of relief
(2) providing of relieve
(3) provide any relief
(4) provide relieving
(5) No correction required
Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Building of these structures requires a lot of fuel to be burnt which emits a large amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
(B) The major source of carbon dioxide is power plants.
(C) Another twenty percent of carbon dioxide emitted in the atmosphere comes from burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
(D) Buildings, both commercial and residential represent in the atmosphere comes from burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
(E) The major cause of global warming is the emission of green house gases like carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide etc. into the atmosphere.
(F) These power plants emit large amounts of carbon dioxide produced from burning of fossil fuels for the purpose of electricity generation.
Q.6. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B (5) A
Q.7. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D (5) F
Q.8. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.9. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.10. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B
(5) A
Reasoning Ability & Computer Competency
Reasoning Ability & Computer Competency
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who face the centre sits third to the right of V. T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of P.
Q.1. Who sits second to the left of Q ?
(1) V
(2) P
(3) T
(4) Y
(5) Cannot be determined
Q.2. What is the position of T with respect to V ?
(1) Fourth to the left
(2) Second to the left
(3) Third to the left
(4) Third to the right
(5) Second to the right
Q.3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the does not belong to that group ?
(1) R
(2) W
(3) V
(4) S
(5) Y
Q.4. Which of the following will come in place the question mark based upon the given seating arrangement ? WP TR QW RS ?
(1) YT
(2) VY
(3) VQ
(4) PY
(5) QV
Q.5. Which of the following is true regarding R ?
(1) R is an immediate neighbour of V
(2) R faces the centre
(3) R sits exactly between T and S
(4) Q sits third to left of R
(5) None is true
In a certain code ‘a friend of mine’ is written as ‘4 9 1 6’ ‘ mine lots of metal’ is written as ‘3 1 0 9’ and ‘a piece of metal’ is written as ‘7 1 6 3’.
Q.6. What is the code for ‘piece’ ?
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) 7
(5) cannot be determined
Q.7. What does ’9’ stand for ?
(1) of
(2) mine
(3) friend
(4) lots
(5) metal
Q.8. Which of the following may represent ‘a pleasure of mine ?
(1) 6 3 0 9
(2) 5 2 1 6
(3) 9 2 1 6
(4) 3 6 9 4
(5) 5 0 4 1
Q.9. What does ’O’ stand for ?
(1) mine
(2) metal
(3) of
(4) lots
(5) a
Q.10. ‘8 7 3’ would mean —
(1) a metal piece
(2) metal for friend
(3) piece of advise
(4) friend of mine
(5) large metal piece
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who face the centre sits third to the right of V. T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of P.
Q.1. Who sits second to the left of Q ?
(1) V
(2) P
(3) T
(4) Y
(5) Cannot be determined
Q.2. What is the position of T with respect to V ?
(1) Fourth to the left
(2) Second to the left
(3) Third to the left
(4) Third to the right
(5) Second to the right
Q.3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the does not belong to that group ?
(1) R
(2) W
(3) V
(4) S
(5) Y
Q.4. Which of the following will come in place the question mark based upon the given seating arrangement ? WP TR QW RS ?
(1) YT
(2) VY
(3) VQ
(4) PY
(5) QV
Q.5. Which of the following is true regarding R ?
(1) R is an immediate neighbour of V
(2) R faces the centre
(3) R sits exactly between T and S
(4) Q sits third to left of R
(5) None is true
In a certain code ‘a friend of mine’ is written as ‘4 9 1 6’ ‘ mine lots of metal’ is written as ‘3 1 0 9’ and ‘a piece of metal’ is written as ‘7 1 6 3’.
Q.6. What is the code for ‘piece’ ?
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) 7
(5) cannot be determined
Q.7. What does ’9’ stand for ?
(1) of
(2) mine
(3) friend
(4) lots
(5) metal
Q.8. Which of the following may represent ‘a pleasure of mine ?
(1) 6 3 0 9
(2) 5 2 1 6
(3) 9 2 1 6
(4) 3 6 9 4
(5) 5 0 4 1
Q.9. What does ’O’ stand for ?
(1) mine
(2) metal
(3) of
(4) lots
(5) a
Q.10. ‘8 7 3’ would mean —
(1) a metal piece
(2) metal for friend
(3) piece of advise
(4) friend of mine
(5) large metal piece
Quantitative Aptitude
Quantitative Aptitude
1. 15 21 39 77 143 (?)
(1) 243
(2) 240
(3) 253
(4) 245
(5) None of these
2. 33 39 57 87 129 (?)
(1) 183
(2) 177
(3) 189
(4) 199
(5) None of these
3. 15 19 83 119 631 (?)
(1) 731
(2) 693
(3) 712
(4) 683
(5) None of these
4. 19 26 40 68 124 (?)
(1) 246
(2) 238
(3) 236
(4) 256
(5) None of these
5. 43 69 58 84 73 (?)
(1) 62
(2) 98
(3) 109
(4) 63
(5) None of these
6. The respective ratio between the present ages of Ram and Rakesh is 6 : 11. Four years ago the ratio of their ages was 1 : 2 respectively. What will be Rakesh’s age after five years?
(1) 45 years
(2) 29 years
(3) 49 years
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
7. The circumference of two circles is 88 metres and 220 metres respectively. What is the difference between the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle?
(1) 3422 sq.mtrs.
(2) 3242 sq.mtrs.
(3) 3244 sq.mtrs.
(4) 3424 sq.mtrs.
(5) None of these
8. Pradeep invested 20% more than Mohit. Mohit invested 10% less than Raghu. If the total sum of their investment is Rs. 17,880/-, how much amount did Raghu invest?
(1) Rs. 6,000/-
(2) Rs. 8,000/-
(3) Rs. 7,000/-
(4) Rs. 5,000/-
(5) None of these
9. Average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh is 63. Rahul’s score is 15 less than Ajay and 10 more than Manish. If Ajay scored 30 marks more than the average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh, what is the sum of Manish’s and Suresh’s scores?
(1) 120
(2) 111
(3) 117
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
10. Fifty three percent of a number is 358 less than the square of 26. What is the value of three-fourth of 23 percent of that number?
(1) 101
(2) 109.5
(3) 113
(4) 103.5
(5) None of these
1. 15 21 39 77 143 (?)
(1) 243
(2) 240
(3) 253
(4) 245
(5) None of these
2. 33 39 57 87 129 (?)
(1) 183
(2) 177
(3) 189
(4) 199
(5) None of these
3. 15 19 83 119 631 (?)
(1) 731
(2) 693
(3) 712
(4) 683
(5) None of these
4. 19 26 40 68 124 (?)
(1) 246
(2) 238
(3) 236
(4) 256
(5) None of these
5. 43 69 58 84 73 (?)
(1) 62
(2) 98
(3) 109
(4) 63
(5) None of these
6. The respective ratio between the present ages of Ram and Rakesh is 6 : 11. Four years ago the ratio of their ages was 1 : 2 respectively. What will be Rakesh’s age after five years?
(1) 45 years
(2) 29 years
(3) 49 years
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
7. The circumference of two circles is 88 metres and 220 metres respectively. What is the difference between the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle?
(1) 3422 sq.mtrs.
(2) 3242 sq.mtrs.
(3) 3244 sq.mtrs.
(4) 3424 sq.mtrs.
(5) None of these
8. Pradeep invested 20% more than Mohit. Mohit invested 10% less than Raghu. If the total sum of their investment is Rs. 17,880/-, how much amount did Raghu invest?
(1) Rs. 6,000/-
(2) Rs. 8,000/-
(3) Rs. 7,000/-
(4) Rs. 5,000/-
(5) None of these
9. Average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh is 63. Rahul’s score is 15 less than Ajay and 10 more than Manish. If Ajay scored 30 marks more than the average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh, what is the sum of Manish’s and Suresh’s scores?
(1) 120
(2) 111
(3) 117
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
10. Fifty three percent of a number is 358 less than the square of 26. What is the value of three-fourth of 23 percent of that number?
(1) 101
(2) 109.5
(3) 113
(4) 103.5
(5) None of these
General Awareness
General Awareness
Q.1. As per the decision taken by the govt. of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended to all the districts of India. This means it will now be applicable to about —
(1) 200 districts
(2) 300 districts
(3) 400 districts
(4) 500 districts
(5) 600 districts
Q.2. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana ?
(1) Rs. 10,000/-
(2) Rs. 20,000/-
(3) Rs. 30,000/-
(4) Rs. 40,000/-
(5) Rs. 50,000/-
Q.3. Which of the following banks has taken over the centurion Bank of Panjab ?
(1) ICICI Bank
(2) IDBI Bank
(3) HDFC Bank
(4) AXIS Bank
(5) None of these
Q.4. Unique Identification Authority of India will set up data base for —
(1) Identity and biometrics details of Indian residents
(2) Identity and biometrics details of Indian citizens
(3) Identity and biometrics details of person’s residents in India or visiting India
(4) All the above
(5) None of these
Q.5. The biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country is —
(1) Iron & steel plants
(2) Roadways
(3) Railways
(4) Airways
(5) None of these
Q.6. Which of the following is Horticulture Crop?
(1) Paddy
(2) Wheat
(3) Mango
(4) Bajara
(5) None of these
Q.7. Which of the following nation is considered the originator of the concept of micro Finance ?
(1) India
(2) Bangladesh
(3) South Africa
(4) USA
(5) None of these
Q.8. Very often we read in news papers about 3G or 3rd Generation technology. This is a set of standards used for which of the following purposes ?
(1) To combat climatic changes
(2) Production of Nuclear Energy
(3) Film Production
(4) Mobile Telecommunications
(5) All of these
Q.9. What is the full form of ‘ULIP’, the term which was the news recently ?
(1) Universal Life & Investment Plan
(2) Unit Loan & Insurance Plan
(3) Universal Loan & Investment Plan
(4) Uniformly Loaded Investment Plan
(5) Unit Linked Insurance Plan
Q.10. The main function of I. M. F. is to —
(1) Finance Investment loans to developing countries
(2) Act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank
(3) Help to solve balance of payment problems of member countries
(4) Arrange international deposits from banks
(5) None of these
Q.1. As per the decision taken by the govt. of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended to all the districts of India. This means it will now be applicable to about —
(1) 200 districts
(2) 300 districts
(3) 400 districts
(4) 500 districts
(5) 600 districts
Q.2. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana ?
(1) Rs. 10,000/-
(2) Rs. 20,000/-
(3) Rs. 30,000/-
(4) Rs. 40,000/-
(5) Rs. 50,000/-
Q.3. Which of the following banks has taken over the centurion Bank of Panjab ?
(1) ICICI Bank
(2) IDBI Bank
(3) HDFC Bank
(4) AXIS Bank
(5) None of these
Q.4. Unique Identification Authority of India will set up data base for —
(1) Identity and biometrics details of Indian residents
(2) Identity and biometrics details of Indian citizens
(3) Identity and biometrics details of person’s residents in India or visiting India
(4) All the above
(5) None of these
Q.5. The biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country is —
(1) Iron & steel plants
(2) Roadways
(3) Railways
(4) Airways
(5) None of these
Q.6. Which of the following is Horticulture Crop?
(1) Paddy
(2) Wheat
(3) Mango
(4) Bajara
(5) None of these
Q.7. Which of the following nation is considered the originator of the concept of micro Finance ?
(1) India
(2) Bangladesh
(3) South Africa
(4) USA
(5) None of these
Q.8. Very often we read in news papers about 3G or 3rd Generation technology. This is a set of standards used for which of the following purposes ?
(1) To combat climatic changes
(2) Production of Nuclear Energy
(3) Film Production
(4) Mobile Telecommunications
(5) All of these
Q.9. What is the full form of ‘ULIP’, the term which was the news recently ?
(1) Universal Life & Investment Plan
(2) Unit Loan & Insurance Plan
(3) Universal Loan & Investment Plan
(4) Uniformly Loaded Investment Plan
(5) Unit Linked Insurance Plan
Q.10. The main function of I. M. F. is to —
(1) Finance Investment loans to developing countries
(2) Act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank
(3) Help to solve balance of payment problems of member countries
(4) Arrange international deposits from banks
(5) None of these
English Language
English Language
Q.1-5. Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the paper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into books”,
(C) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticed my noticing her.
(D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.
Q.1, Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.2, Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.3, Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.4, Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.5, Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.6-10. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came (206) effects in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just (207) the corner, it is fast becoming clear that (208) well-intentioned ideas into (209) will take some doing. For a start, the guidelines for admission under the RTE prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student profiling The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that school will have to resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure (210) will only incentivise manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.
The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to education are all very well, (211) we have the infrastructure in place first Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the (212) way around. In that sense legislaors’ assessment of ground realities is (213) target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of low-cost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down (214) on private schools failing to conform to abstract bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education should focus on upgrading and expanding the exisiting government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can we ensure the much- eeded supply-demand (215) in the education sector.
Q.6. (1) with
(2) for
(3) on
(4) into
(5) in
Q.7. (1) around
(2) near
(3) into
(4) about
(5) reaching
Q.8. (1) forming
(2) translating
(3) having
(4) taking
(5) framing
Q.9. (1) affect
(2) ideas
(3) practice
(4) concept
(5) procedure
Q.10. (1) benefit
(2) merit
(3) chance
(4) basis
(5) method
Q.1-5. Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the paper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into books”,
(C) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticed my noticing her.
(D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.
Q.1, Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.2, Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.3, Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.4, Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.5, Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.6-10. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came (206) effects in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just (207) the corner, it is fast becoming clear that (208) well-intentioned ideas into (209) will take some doing. For a start, the guidelines for admission under the RTE prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student profiling The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that school will have to resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure (210) will only incentivise manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.
The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to education are all very well, (211) we have the infrastructure in place first Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the (212) way around. In that sense legislaors’ assessment of ground realities is (213) target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of low-cost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down (214) on private schools failing to conform to abstract bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education should focus on upgrading and expanding the exisiting government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can we ensure the much- eeded supply-demand (215) in the education sector.
Q.6. (1) with
(2) for
(3) on
(4) into
(5) in
Q.7. (1) around
(2) near
(3) into
(4) about
(5) reaching
Q.8. (1) forming
(2) translating
(3) having
(4) taking
(5) framing
Q.9. (1) affect
(2) ideas
(3) practice
(4) concept
(5) procedure
Q.10. (1) benefit
(2) merit
(3) chance
(4) basis
(5) method
English Language
English Language
Q.1-5. Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the paper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into books”,
(C) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticed my noticing her.
(D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.
Q.1, Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.2, Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.3, Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.4, Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.5, Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.6-10. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came (206) effects in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just (207) the corner, it is fast becoming clear that (208) well-intentioned ideas into (209) will take some doing. For a start, the guidelines for admission under the RTE prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student profiling The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that school will have to resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure (210) will only incentivise manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.
The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to education are all very well, (211) we have the infrastructure in place first Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the (212) way around. In that sense legislaors’ assessment of ground realities is (213) target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of low-cost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down (214) on private schools failing to conform to abstract bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education should focus on upgrading and expanding the exisiting government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can we ensure the much- eeded supply-demand (215) in the education sector.
Q.6. (1) with
(2) for
(3) on
(4) into
(5) in
Q.7. (1) around
(2) near
(3) into
(4) about
(5) reaching
Q.8. (1) forming
(2) translating
(3) having
(4) taking
(5) framing
Q.9. (1) affect
(2) ideas
(3) practice
(4) concept
(5) procedure
Q.10. (1) benefit
(2) merit
(3) chance
(4) basis
(5) method
Q.1-5. Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the paper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into books”,
(C) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticed my noticing her.
(D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.
Q.1, Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.2, Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.3, Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.4, Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.5, Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.6-10. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came (206) effects in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just (207) the corner, it is fast becoming clear that (208) well-intentioned ideas into (209) will take some doing. For a start, the guidelines for admission under the RTE prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student profiling The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that school will have to resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure (210) will only incentivise manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.
The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to education are all very well, (211) we have the infrastructure in place first Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the (212) way around. In that sense legislaors’ assessment of ground realities is (213) target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of low-cost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down (214) on private schools failing to conform to abstract bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education should focus on upgrading and expanding the exisiting government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can we ensure the much- eeded supply-demand (215) in the education sector.
Q.6. (1) with
(2) for
(3) on
(4) into
(5) in
Q.7. (1) around
(2) near
(3) into
(4) about
(5) reaching
Q.8. (1) forming
(2) translating
(3) having
(4) taking
(5) framing
Q.9. (1) affect
(2) ideas
(3) practice
(4) concept
(5) procedure
Q.10. (1) benefit
(2) merit
(3) chance
(4) basis
(5) method
Reasoning
Reasoning
1. How many such pairs of letter are there in the word FREQUENT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between in the English alphabetical series?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
2. In a class of 35 children, Ameya’s rank sixth from the top. Annie is seven ranks below Amerya. What is Annie’s rank for the bottom?
(1) 22
(2) 20
(3) 19
(4) 23
(5) Cannot be determined
3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Lens
(2) Shutter
(3) Film
(4) Camera
(5) Zoom
4. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series? AB BE DH ? KQ
(1) HL
(2) GL
(3) GK
(4) EI
(5) IM
5. If two is subtracted from each odd digit and if two is added to each even digit in the number 9275436, what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and second from the left of the new number thus formed?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 1
(5) 5
6. The position of how many alphabets will remain unchanged if each of the alphabets in the word FORGET is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
7. Which of the following groups of alphabets should replace the blank space so that the group of alphabets, given in bold, follow a logical pattern from the preceding and the following group of alphabets?
a b _ y
a b c _ x w
a b c d e v _
(1) z, d, u
(2) d, x, u
(3) c, d, u
(4) z, y, w
(5) c, d, w
8. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘P < F’ be definitely false?
(1) F = B > P M
(2) P > B M = F
(3) P B < F M
(4) B < P M < F
(5) None of these
If ‘A × B’ means A is the son of B.
If ‘A + B’ means A is the father of B.
If ‘A > B’ means A is the daughter of B.
If ‘A < B’ means A is the wife of B.
9. Which of the following pairs of people represent first cousins with regard to the relations given in the expressions, if it is provided that A is the sister of J: ‘L > V < J + P’ and ‘S × A < D + F < E + K’
(1) LP
(2) SP
(3) SK
(4) SF
(5) cannot be determined
10. What will come in the place of the question mark, if it is provided that M is the grandmother of F in the expression: ‘F × R < S ? M’
(1) >
(2) <
(3) +
(4) ×
(5) cannot be determined
1. How many such pairs of letter are there in the word FREQUENT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between in the English alphabetical series?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
2. In a class of 35 children, Ameya’s rank sixth from the top. Annie is seven ranks below Amerya. What is Annie’s rank for the bottom?
(1) 22
(2) 20
(3) 19
(4) 23
(5) Cannot be determined
3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Lens
(2) Shutter
(3) Film
(4) Camera
(5) Zoom
4. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series? AB BE DH ? KQ
(1) HL
(2) GL
(3) GK
(4) EI
(5) IM
5. If two is subtracted from each odd digit and if two is added to each even digit in the number 9275436, what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and second from the left of the new number thus formed?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 1
(5) 5
6. The position of how many alphabets will remain unchanged if each of the alphabets in the word FORGET is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
7. Which of the following groups of alphabets should replace the blank space so that the group of alphabets, given in bold, follow a logical pattern from the preceding and the following group of alphabets?
a b _ y
a b c _ x w
a b c d e v _
(1) z, d, u
(2) d, x, u
(3) c, d, u
(4) z, y, w
(5) c, d, w
8. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘P < F’ be definitely false?
(1) F = B > P M
(2) P > B M = F
(3) P B < F M
(4) B < P M < F
(5) None of these
If ‘A × B’ means A is the son of B.
If ‘A + B’ means A is the father of B.
If ‘A > B’ means A is the daughter of B.
If ‘A < B’ means A is the wife of B.
9. Which of the following pairs of people represent first cousins with regard to the relations given in the expressions, if it is provided that A is the sister of J: ‘L > V < J + P’ and ‘S × A < D + F < E + K’
(1) LP
(2) SP
(3) SK
(4) SF
(5) cannot be determined
10. What will come in the place of the question mark, if it is provided that M is the grandmother of F in the expression: ‘F × R < S ? M’
(1) >
(2) <
(3) +
(4) ×
(5) cannot be determined
Quantitative Aptitude
Quantitative Aptitude
1. 117 389 593 627 (?)
(1) 654
(2) 640
(3) 634
(4) 630
(5) None of these
2. 7 21 23 51 103 (?)
(1) 186
(2) 188
(3) 185
(4) 187
(5) None of these
3. 18 27 49 84 132 (?)
(1) 190
(2) 183
(3) 180
(4) 193
(5) None of these
4. 33 43 65 99 145 (?)
(1) 201
(2) 203
(3) 205
(4) 211
(5) None of these
5. 655 439 314 250 223 (?)
(1) 205
(2) 210
(3) 195
(4) 190
(5) None of these
6. Veena’s monthly income is equal to the cost of 34 kg of nuts. Cost of 10 kg of nuts is equal to the cost of 20 kgs of apples. If cost of 12 kg of apples is Rs. 1500/-. What is Veena’s annual salary? (At some places annual income and in some place monthly income is given)
(1) Rs. 1 lac 20 thousand
(2) Rs. 1 lac 2 thousand
(3) Rs. 2 lac 20 thousand
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
7. Rohit has some 50 paisa coins, some 2 rupees coins, some 1 rupee and some 5 rupee coins. The value of all of coins is Rs. 50/-. Number of 2 rupee coin is 5 more than the 5 rupee coins. 50 paisa coins are double in number than 1 rupee coin. Value of 50 paisa coins and 1 rupee coins is Rs. 28/-. How many 2 rupee coins does he have?
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 7
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
8. Puneet scored 175 marks in a test and failed by 35 marks. If the passing percentage of the test is 35 percent, what are the maximum marks of the test?
(1) 650
(2) 700
(3) 750
(4) 600
(5) None of these
9. The length of a rectangle is twice the diameter of a circle. The circumference of the circle is equal to the area of a square of side 22 cm. What is the breadth of the rectangle if its perimeter is 668 cm?
(1) 24 cm
(2) 26 cm
(3) 52 cm
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
10. 4 girls can do a piece of work in 8 days, 3 boys can do the same piece of work in 9 days, 7 men do the same piece of work in 2 days and 5 women can do the same piece of work in 4 days. Who is least efficient?
(1) Boys
(2) Girls
(3) Women
(4) Men
(5) Boys and men both
1. 117 389 593 627 (?)
(1) 654
(2) 640
(3) 634
(4) 630
(5) None of these
2. 7 21 23 51 103 (?)
(1) 186
(2) 188
(3) 185
(4) 187
(5) None of these
3. 18 27 49 84 132 (?)
(1) 190
(2) 183
(3) 180
(4) 193
(5) None of these
4. 33 43 65 99 145 (?)
(1) 201
(2) 203
(3) 205
(4) 211
(5) None of these
5. 655 439 314 250 223 (?)
(1) 205
(2) 210
(3) 195
(4) 190
(5) None of these
6. Veena’s monthly income is equal to the cost of 34 kg of nuts. Cost of 10 kg of nuts is equal to the cost of 20 kgs of apples. If cost of 12 kg of apples is Rs. 1500/-. What is Veena’s annual salary? (At some places annual income and in some place monthly income is given)
(1) Rs. 1 lac 20 thousand
(2) Rs. 1 lac 2 thousand
(3) Rs. 2 lac 20 thousand
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
7. Rohit has some 50 paisa coins, some 2 rupees coins, some 1 rupee and some 5 rupee coins. The value of all of coins is Rs. 50/-. Number of 2 rupee coin is 5 more than the 5 rupee coins. 50 paisa coins are double in number than 1 rupee coin. Value of 50 paisa coins and 1 rupee coins is Rs. 28/-. How many 2 rupee coins does he have?
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 7
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
8. Puneet scored 175 marks in a test and failed by 35 marks. If the passing percentage of the test is 35 percent, what are the maximum marks of the test?
(1) 650
(2) 700
(3) 750
(4) 600
(5) None of these
9. The length of a rectangle is twice the diameter of a circle. The circumference of the circle is equal to the area of a square of side 22 cm. What is the breadth of the rectangle if its perimeter is 668 cm?
(1) 24 cm
(2) 26 cm
(3) 52 cm
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
10. 4 girls can do a piece of work in 8 days, 3 boys can do the same piece of work in 9 days, 7 men do the same piece of work in 2 days and 5 women can do the same piece of work in 4 days. Who is least efficient?
(1) Boys
(2) Girls
(3) Women
(4) Men
(5) Boys and men both
General Awareness
General Awareness
1. The eleventh ‘five year plan’ of India is for the five years ranging from—
(1) 2009-2014
(2) 2008-2013
(3) 2007-2012
(4) 2006-2011
(5) None of these
2. DSCR indicates the ability of a company to—
(1) meet its current liabilities
(2) service its shareholders
(3) meet its long term debt obligations
(4) raise further capital
(5) None of these
3. Ah IPO is—
(1) initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders
(2) an offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the time to the public
(3) used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(4) a book building process
(5) None of these
4. A decreasing current ratio indicates—
(1) a stable liquidity
(2) an increasing liquidity
(3) a strained liquidity
(4) satisfactory current solvency
(5) none of these
5. Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on—
(1) the age of the company
(2) the location of the company
(3) the activity undertaken by the company
(4) the credibility and the valuation of the company
(5) the existing profitability of the company
6. The synagogue is generally—
(1) an epic
(2) a religion
(3) Jewish House of Prayer
(4) the Parsi temple
(5) a palace
7. Deuce is a term used in—
(1) Polo
(2) lawn tennis
(3) badminton
(4) boxing
(5) volleyball
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, e
(4) a, b, e
(5) b, c, e
8. ISI the intelligence agency of—
(1) United Kingdom
(2) Unites States of America
(3) Israel
(4) Pakistan
(5) India
9. Air Traffic Controller’s jobs involves—
(1) control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
(2) control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and control centres
(3) following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
(4) control of commercial airline flights according to government regulations
(5) to authorize and regulate commercial airline flights
(1) (1), (2)
(2) (2), (3)
(3) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(4) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
(5) (3), (4), (5)
10. Animal assisted therapy is employed in—
(1) Operations
(2) ICU
(3) old age homes
(4) training animals
(5) natural healing
1. The eleventh ‘five year plan’ of India is for the five years ranging from—
(1) 2009-2014
(2) 2008-2013
(3) 2007-2012
(4) 2006-2011
(5) None of these
2. DSCR indicates the ability of a company to—
(1) meet its current liabilities
(2) service its shareholders
(3) meet its long term debt obligations
(4) raise further capital
(5) None of these
3. Ah IPO is—
(1) initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders
(2) an offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the time to the public
(3) used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(4) a book building process
(5) None of these
4. A decreasing current ratio indicates—
(1) a stable liquidity
(2) an increasing liquidity
(3) a strained liquidity
(4) satisfactory current solvency
(5) none of these
5. Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on—
(1) the age of the company
(2) the location of the company
(3) the activity undertaken by the company
(4) the credibility and the valuation of the company
(5) the existing profitability of the company
6. The synagogue is generally—
(1) an epic
(2) a religion
(3) Jewish House of Prayer
(4) the Parsi temple
(5) a palace
7. Deuce is a term used in—
(1) Polo
(2) lawn tennis
(3) badminton
(4) boxing
(5) volleyball
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, e
(4) a, b, e
(5) b, c, e
8. ISI the intelligence agency of—
(1) United Kingdom
(2) Unites States of America
(3) Israel
(4) Pakistan
(5) India
9. Air Traffic Controller’s jobs involves—
(1) control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
(2) control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and control centres
(3) following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
(4) control of commercial airline flights according to government regulations
(5) to authorize and regulate commercial airline flights
(1) (1), (2)
(2) (2), (3)
(3) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(4) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
(5) (3), (4), (5)
10. Animal assisted therapy is employed in—
(1) Operations
(2) ICU
(3) old age homes
(4) training animals
(5) natural healing
English Language
English Language
Read the following interview and answer the given questions based on that. Some words have been printed in bold to help you locate them white answering some of the questions.
A pioneering new book, Gender and Green Governance, explores a central question: If women adequate representation of forestry institution, would make a difference to them the communities and forests as a national resource? Interview with the author. Why has access to forests been such a conflictridden issue?
This is not surprising. Forests constitute not just community and national wealth, but global wealth. But for millions, forests are also critical for livelihoods and their daily lives. Your first book, Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes (1986), was about forest. Is there an evolution of argument here?
Yes indeed. In Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes, I had argued that social forestry, with its-down implementation and focus on commercial species, was neither ‘social’ nor ‘forestry’, and would protect neither forests nor village livelihoods. The answer, I argues, lay in allowing forest communities to mange local forests. Finally, in 1990, India launched the joint forest management programme and Nepal also started community forestry. So I decided to see for myself how community forestry was actually doing.
Between 1995 and 1999, I travelled extensively across India and Nepal and found a paradox. Forests were indeed becoming greener but women’s problem of firewood shortages persisted and in many cases had become more acute. Also, despite their high stakes in forest, women continued to be largely excluded from forest management. I coined the term “participatory exclusions” to describe this. However, the current book is less about women’s exclusion. I ask: What if women were present in forest governance? What difference would that make? But has this question not been raised before? Economists researching environment collective action have paid little attention to gender. Scholars from other disciplines focusing on gender and governance have been concerned mainly with women’s near absence from governance institutions. The presumption is that once women are present all good things will follow. But can we assume this? No. Rural women relationship with forest is complex. On the one hand, their everyday dependence on forests for firewood, fodder, etc, creates a strong stake in conversation. On the other, the same dependence can compel them to extract heavily from forest. As one landless women told me: “Of course, it hurts me to cut a green branch but what do I do if my children are hungry?” Taking an agnostic position, I decide to test varied propositions, controlling for otherfactors.
What did you find? First, women’s greater presence enhance enhances their effective voice in decision-making. And there is a critical mass effect: If forest management groups have 25-33 per cent female members in their executive committees it significantly increases the likelihood of women makes a particular difference. When present in sufficient number they are more likely to attend meetings and voice their concerns than landed women. So what matters is not just including more women, but more poor women. Second, and unexpectedly, groups with more women typically made stricter forest use rules. Why is this the case? Mainly because they receive poorer forest from the forest department. To regenerate these they have to sacrifice their immediate needs. Women from household with some land have some fallback. But remarkably even in groups with more landless women, although extraction is higher, they still balance self-interest with conservation goals, when placed in decision-making positions.
Third, groups with more women outperform other groups in improving forest conditions, despite getting poorer forest. Involving women substantially improves protection and conflict resolution, helps the use of their knowledge of local biodiversity, and raises children’s awareness about conservation.
1. What was author’s view on “Social Forestry Scheme”?
(1) A great success
(2) Beneficial for villagers
(3) Neither good nor bad
(4) Should have been implemented as ‘top-down’
(5) None of these
2. Which of the following is one of the reason of forest being a conflict-ridden issue?
(1) Some countries have larger forest cover
(2) There is less awareness about global warming
(3) High dependence of many of forests
(4) Less representation of women
(5) Less representation of local women
3. The author is advocating inclusion of—
(1) More landless women
(2) More landed women
(3) More women irrespective of their financial status
(4) Local people
(5) Younger women in the age group of 25-33 years
4. Which of the following best describes “participatory exclusion”, as used in the interview?
(1) Outside support
(2) Overdependence
(3) Benefitting without self interest
(4) Contributing with profits
(5) None of these
5. In the second question the interviewer asked- Is more an evolution of argument here?’ Which of the following best describes that?
(1) From Barren to Greener slopes
(2) From local group to local groups with more women
(3) A fine balance between conservation and commercial forestry
(4) Too-down approach to Community forestry
(5) Participatory excision to Greener slopes
6. What percent of female members tin the Executive Committee for Forest Management is being recommended by the author?
(1) Less than 25%
(2) More than 25%
(3) 100%
(4) About 75%
(5) None of these
7. Why does author say, ‘Rural women’s relationship with forests is complex’?
(1) Dependence forces them to extracts and also have concern for conservation
(2) If they project forests, their livelihood is severely affected
(3) Poor women have been excluded from forest management
(4) They cannot be asked to restore forests which are critical for them
(5) Greener forests do not meet the requirement of firewood
8. Landless women, when in decision making role—
(1) extract much more from forest
(2) improve their own financial status
(3) do not care for forest
(4) are able to need conservation objectives as well as their own interest
(5) fulfill their own interest at the cost of conservation goals
9. When more women are involved, which of the following also happens?
(1) They get poorer forests
(2) They come to know about conservation needs
(3) Children become more aware abut conservation
(4) They are able to devote more time to conversation
(5) They get a more comprehensive understanding of local biodiversity
10. controlling
(1) holding in check
(2) increasing
(3) decreasing
(4) passing
(5) ignoring
Read the following interview and answer the given questions based on that. Some words have been printed in bold to help you locate them white answering some of the questions.
A pioneering new book, Gender and Green Governance, explores a central question: If women adequate representation of forestry institution, would make a difference to them the communities and forests as a national resource? Interview with the author. Why has access to forests been such a conflictridden issue?
This is not surprising. Forests constitute not just community and national wealth, but global wealth. But for millions, forests are also critical for livelihoods and their daily lives. Your first book, Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes (1986), was about forest. Is there an evolution of argument here?
Yes indeed. In Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes, I had argued that social forestry, with its-down implementation and focus on commercial species, was neither ‘social’ nor ‘forestry’, and would protect neither forests nor village livelihoods. The answer, I argues, lay in allowing forest communities to mange local forests. Finally, in 1990, India launched the joint forest management programme and Nepal also started community forestry. So I decided to see for myself how community forestry was actually doing.
Between 1995 and 1999, I travelled extensively across India and Nepal and found a paradox. Forests were indeed becoming greener but women’s problem of firewood shortages persisted and in many cases had become more acute. Also, despite their high stakes in forest, women continued to be largely excluded from forest management. I coined the term “participatory exclusions” to describe this. However, the current book is less about women’s exclusion. I ask: What if women were present in forest governance? What difference would that make? But has this question not been raised before? Economists researching environment collective action have paid little attention to gender. Scholars from other disciplines focusing on gender and governance have been concerned mainly with women’s near absence from governance institutions. The presumption is that once women are present all good things will follow. But can we assume this? No. Rural women relationship with forest is complex. On the one hand, their everyday dependence on forests for firewood, fodder, etc, creates a strong stake in conversation. On the other, the same dependence can compel them to extract heavily from forest. As one landless women told me: “Of course, it hurts me to cut a green branch but what do I do if my children are hungry?” Taking an agnostic position, I decide to test varied propositions, controlling for otherfactors.
What did you find? First, women’s greater presence enhance enhances their effective voice in decision-making. And there is a critical mass effect: If forest management groups have 25-33 per cent female members in their executive committees it significantly increases the likelihood of women makes a particular difference. When present in sufficient number they are more likely to attend meetings and voice their concerns than landed women. So what matters is not just including more women, but more poor women. Second, and unexpectedly, groups with more women typically made stricter forest use rules. Why is this the case? Mainly because they receive poorer forest from the forest department. To regenerate these they have to sacrifice their immediate needs. Women from household with some land have some fallback. But remarkably even in groups with more landless women, although extraction is higher, they still balance self-interest with conservation goals, when placed in decision-making positions.
Third, groups with more women outperform other groups in improving forest conditions, despite getting poorer forest. Involving women substantially improves protection and conflict resolution, helps the use of their knowledge of local biodiversity, and raises children’s awareness about conservation.
1. What was author’s view on “Social Forestry Scheme”?
(1) A great success
(2) Beneficial for villagers
(3) Neither good nor bad
(4) Should have been implemented as ‘top-down’
(5) None of these
2. Which of the following is one of the reason of forest being a conflict-ridden issue?
(1) Some countries have larger forest cover
(2) There is less awareness about global warming
(3) High dependence of many of forests
(4) Less representation of women
(5) Less representation of local women
3. The author is advocating inclusion of—
(1) More landless women
(2) More landed women
(3) More women irrespective of their financial status
(4) Local people
(5) Younger women in the age group of 25-33 years
4. Which of the following best describes “participatory exclusion”, as used in the interview?
(1) Outside support
(2) Overdependence
(3) Benefitting without self interest
(4) Contributing with profits
(5) None of these
5. In the second question the interviewer asked- Is more an evolution of argument here?’ Which of the following best describes that?
(1) From Barren to Greener slopes
(2) From local group to local groups with more women
(3) A fine balance between conservation and commercial forestry
(4) Too-down approach to Community forestry
(5) Participatory excision to Greener slopes
6. What percent of female members tin the Executive Committee for Forest Management is being recommended by the author?
(1) Less than 25%
(2) More than 25%
(3) 100%
(4) About 75%
(5) None of these
7. Why does author say, ‘Rural women’s relationship with forests is complex’?
(1) Dependence forces them to extracts and also have concern for conservation
(2) If they project forests, their livelihood is severely affected
(3) Poor women have been excluded from forest management
(4) They cannot be asked to restore forests which are critical for them
(5) Greener forests do not meet the requirement of firewood
8. Landless women, when in decision making role—
(1) extract much more from forest
(2) improve their own financial status
(3) do not care for forest
(4) are able to need conservation objectives as well as their own interest
(5) fulfill their own interest at the cost of conservation goals
9. When more women are involved, which of the following also happens?
(1) They get poorer forests
(2) They come to know about conservation needs
(3) Children become more aware abut conservation
(4) They are able to devote more time to conversation
(5) They get a more comprehensive understanding of local biodiversity
10. controlling
(1) holding in check
(2) increasing
(3) decreasing
(4) passing
(5) ignoring
Computer Knowledge
Computer Knowledge
1. You can keep your personal files/folders in—
(1) My folder
(2) My Document
(3) My Files
(4) My Text
(5) None of these
2. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into—
(1) Wed sites
(2) information
(3) programs
(4) objects
(5) None of these
3. A directory within a directory is called—
(1) Mini Directory
(2) Junior Directory
(3) Part Directory
(4) Sub Directory
(5) None of these
4. A complier translates a program written in a high-level language into—
(1) Machine language
(2) An algorithm
(3) A debugged program
(4) Java
(5) None o these
5. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test—
(1) RAM test
(2) disk drive test
(3) memory test
(4) power-on self-test
(5) None of these
6. A _______ is a unique name that you give to a file information—
(1) device letter
(2) folder
(3) filename
(4) filename extension
(5) None of these
7. Hardware includes ________.
(1) all devices used to input data into a computer
(2) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes
(3) the computer and all the devices connected to it that used to input and output data
(4) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory, and storage
(5) None of these
8. A _______ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(1) programming language
(2) syntax
(3) programming structure
(4) logic chart
(5) None of these
9. All the deleted files go to—
(1) Recycle Bin
(2) Task Bar
(3) Tool Bar
(4) My Computer
(5) None of these
10. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is—
(1) multiprogramming
(2) multitasking
(3) time-sharing
(4) multiprocessing
(5) None of these
1. You can keep your personal files/folders in—
(1) My folder
(2) My Document
(3) My Files
(4) My Text
(5) None of these
2. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into—
(1) Wed sites
(2) information
(3) programs
(4) objects
(5) None of these
3. A directory within a directory is called—
(1) Mini Directory
(2) Junior Directory
(3) Part Directory
(4) Sub Directory
(5) None of these
4. A complier translates a program written in a high-level language into—
(1) Machine language
(2) An algorithm
(3) A debugged program
(4) Java
(5) None o these
5. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test—
(1) RAM test
(2) disk drive test
(3) memory test
(4) power-on self-test
(5) None of these
6. A _______ is a unique name that you give to a file information—
(1) device letter
(2) folder
(3) filename
(4) filename extension
(5) None of these
7. Hardware includes ________.
(1) all devices used to input data into a computer
(2) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes
(3) the computer and all the devices connected to it that used to input and output data
(4) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory, and storage
(5) None of these
8. A _______ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(1) programming language
(2) syntax
(3) programming structure
(4) logic chart
(5) None of these
9. All the deleted files go to—
(1) Recycle Bin
(2) Task Bar
(3) Tool Bar
(4) My Computer
(5) None of these
10. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is—
(1) multiprogramming
(2) multitasking
(3) time-sharing
(4) multiprocessing
(5) None of these
Saturday 26 November 2011
Quiz On Gandhi Jiiii
1. Which of the following, according to Gandhiji, is an essential principle of satyagraha?
(A) Infinite capacity for suffering
(B) Non violence
(C) Truth
(D) All the three
Ans : (D)
2. Gandhiji's "The Story of My Experiments with Truth" was originally written in Gujarati. Who translated it into English?
(A) Maganlal Gandhi
(B) Mahadev Desai
(C) Pyarelalji
(D) Sushila Nayyar
Ans : (B)
3. Which one of the following books is the work of Gandhiji?
(A) Light of India
(B) Hind Swaraj
(C) My Experiments with Truth
(D) both(B) & (c)
Ans : (D)
4. What did Gandhiji mean by "Swaraj"?
(A) Freedom for the country
(B) Freedom for the meanest of the countrymen
(c) Self Government
(D) Complete Independence
Ans : (B)
5. When did Gandhiji take the vow of brahmacharya or celibacy of life?
(A) 1911
(B) 1906
(C) 1900
(D) 1905
Ans : (B)
6. Before the civil disobedience or non-co-operation movement could be effectively launched, Gandhiji suspended it because of an outbreak of mob violence at Chauri Chaura in the sate of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Bihar
Ans : (B)
7. For writing which of the following articles, published in Young India, was Gandhiji convicted for the first time in the country by the Government?
(A) Tampering with Loyalty
(B) The Puzzle and its Solutions
(C) Shaking the Manes
(D) All the three
Ans : (D)
8. On which day of March 1930 Gandhiji started with a band of chosen volunteers on his famous Dandi March to break the law by manufacturing illegally but openly, salt from the sea?
(A) Sixth
(B) Eighth
(C) Tenth
(D) Twelfth
Ans : (D)
9. When did Gandhiji get his head shaved, discard his clothes and settle for a loin cloth?
(A) 1930
(B) 1921
(C) 1925
(D) 1930
Ans : (B)
10. Who worked a Private Secretary to Mahatma Gandhi?
(A) Pyarelalji
(B) Mahadev Desai
(C) Kishorilal Mashruwalla
(D) Sushila Nayyar
Ans : (B)
11. Who in South Africa gave Gandhiji 'Unto This Last' to read which proved to be one of the most decisive books of his life?
(A) John Holmes Haynes
(B) H S Polak
(C) Hermann Kallenbach
(D) Louis Fischer
Ans : (B)
12. Which of the following did Gandhiji describes as his two lungs?
(A) Ahimsa and peace
(B) Ahimsa and truth
(C) Truth and Peace
(D) Brahmcharya and Aparigriha
Ans : (B)
13. What was the profession of Gandhiji's father?
(A) Farmer
(B) Diwan
(C) Shop-keeper
(D) Tehsildar
Ans : (B)
14. In how many days was the 241 mile-journey from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi covered on foot by Gandhi and his volunteers?
(A) 20
(B) 24
(C) 28
(D) 30
Ans : (B)
15. Who was nominated by Gandhiji to lead the satyagrahais on the Dandi March in the event of his arrest?
(A) Jawaharlal Nahru
(B) Vithalbhai Patel
(C) Abdul Gaffar Khan
(D) Abbas Tyabji
Ans : (D)
16. How many children did Putlibai have?
(A) Two sons and daughters
(B) One daughter and three sons
(C) Four sons
(D) Three sons
Ans : (B)
17. What was the name of Gandhi's domestic help?
(A) Titlidai
(B) Rambhadai
(C) Rainadai
(D) Gauridai
Ans : (B)
18. What was the name of Gandhiji's sister?
(A) Gauri
(B) Raliat
(C) Rambha
(D) Meera
Ans : (B)
19. Which spelling did Gandhiji spell wrong as a child when the school inspector gave dictation to the class?
(A) School
(B) Kettle
(C) Uniform
(D) Umbrella
Ans : (B)
20. Where did Gandhiji receive his primary education?
(A) Sudampuri
(B) Bikaner
(C) Porbander
(D) Rajkot
Ans : (D)
(A) Infinite capacity for suffering
(B) Non violence
(C) Truth
(D) All the three
Ans : (D)
2. Gandhiji's "The Story of My Experiments with Truth" was originally written in Gujarati. Who translated it into English?
(A) Maganlal Gandhi
(B) Mahadev Desai
(C) Pyarelalji
(D) Sushila Nayyar
Ans : (B)
3. Which one of the following books is the work of Gandhiji?
(A) Light of India
(B) Hind Swaraj
(C) My Experiments with Truth
(D) both(B) & (c)
Ans : (D)
4. What did Gandhiji mean by "Swaraj"?
(A) Freedom for the country
(B) Freedom for the meanest of the countrymen
(c) Self Government
(D) Complete Independence
Ans : (B)
5. When did Gandhiji take the vow of brahmacharya or celibacy of life?
(A) 1911
(B) 1906
(C) 1900
(D) 1905
Ans : (B)
6. Before the civil disobedience or non-co-operation movement could be effectively launched, Gandhiji suspended it because of an outbreak of mob violence at Chauri Chaura in the sate of—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Bihar
Ans : (B)
7. For writing which of the following articles, published in Young India, was Gandhiji convicted for the first time in the country by the Government?
(A) Tampering with Loyalty
(B) The Puzzle and its Solutions
(C) Shaking the Manes
(D) All the three
Ans : (D)
8. On which day of March 1930 Gandhiji started with a band of chosen volunteers on his famous Dandi March to break the law by manufacturing illegally but openly, salt from the sea?
(A) Sixth
(B) Eighth
(C) Tenth
(D) Twelfth
Ans : (D)
9. When did Gandhiji get his head shaved, discard his clothes and settle for a loin cloth?
(A) 1930
(B) 1921
(C) 1925
(D) 1930
Ans : (B)
10. Who worked a Private Secretary to Mahatma Gandhi?
(A) Pyarelalji
(B) Mahadev Desai
(C) Kishorilal Mashruwalla
(D) Sushila Nayyar
Ans : (B)
11. Who in South Africa gave Gandhiji 'Unto This Last' to read which proved to be one of the most decisive books of his life?
(A) John Holmes Haynes
(B) H S Polak
(C) Hermann Kallenbach
(D) Louis Fischer
Ans : (B)
12. Which of the following did Gandhiji describes as his two lungs?
(A) Ahimsa and peace
(B) Ahimsa and truth
(C) Truth and Peace
(D) Brahmcharya and Aparigriha
Ans : (B)
13. What was the profession of Gandhiji's father?
(A) Farmer
(B) Diwan
(C) Shop-keeper
(D) Tehsildar
Ans : (B)
14. In how many days was the 241 mile-journey from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi covered on foot by Gandhi and his volunteers?
(A) 20
(B) 24
(C) 28
(D) 30
Ans : (B)
15. Who was nominated by Gandhiji to lead the satyagrahais on the Dandi March in the event of his arrest?
(A) Jawaharlal Nahru
(B) Vithalbhai Patel
(C) Abdul Gaffar Khan
(D) Abbas Tyabji
Ans : (D)
16. How many children did Putlibai have?
(A) Two sons and daughters
(B) One daughter and three sons
(C) Four sons
(D) Three sons
Ans : (B)
17. What was the name of Gandhi's domestic help?
(A) Titlidai
(B) Rambhadai
(C) Rainadai
(D) Gauridai
Ans : (B)
18. What was the name of Gandhiji's sister?
(A) Gauri
(B) Raliat
(C) Rambha
(D) Meera
Ans : (B)
19. Which spelling did Gandhiji spell wrong as a child when the school inspector gave dictation to the class?
(A) School
(B) Kettle
(C) Uniform
(D) Umbrella
Ans : (B)
20. Where did Gandhiji receive his primary education?
(A) Sudampuri
(B) Bikaner
(C) Porbander
(D) Rajkot
Ans : (D)
pratiyogita kiran
66. When was Reserve Bank of India established? What are its functions and how does it control credit policy? (UPPCS, 1988)
67. How can inflation be controlled? (UPPCS, 1998)
68. Why are socialist countries of the world being attracted towards democracy? (UPPCS, 1988)
69. How can the judicial system in India be improved? (UPPCS, 1988)
70. Is the shrine situated at Ajmer secular? (RAS, 1999)
71. Was the merger of Ajmer in Rajasthan correct or not? (RAS, 1999)
72. What changes can be brought about in sales tax ? (RAS, 1999)
73. What are the eight wonders of the world? (RAS, 1999)
74. Which tower in India resembles the leaning tower of Pisa ? (RAS, 1999)
75. At present how much tax evasion is taking place? (RAS, 1999)
76. What are constitutional remedies? (BPCS, 1995)
77. What do you know about the Presidential form of election? (BPCS, 1995)
78. What is the difference between a Punch decision and adjudication? Do both have juridical power? (BPCS, 1995)
79. Why does a person become a criminal? How can crime be stopped? (BPCS, 1995)
80. What are the duties of police? (BPCS, 1995)
81. What is the role of regional parties? Tell us about the positive and negative aspects?
(UPPCS, 1996)
82. In what way does the mafia system of Italy work? (UPPCS, 1996)
83. How can we get rid of corruption? (UPPCS, 1996)
84. In what way is the Public Service Commission constituted? (UPPCS, 1995)
85. How many kinds of Tennis courts are there? (MPPSC, 1999)
86. Tell us about the Nine gems (Navratnas) of Akbar. (MPPSC, 1999)
87. How can corruption be eradicated from public services? (MPPSC, 1999)
88. What are the benefits of census and its dates? (MPPSC, 1999)
89. What do you understand by local self government? (MPPSC, 1999)
90. Tell us about the earthquake resistant civil designs. (MPPSC, 1999)
91. What is International date line? Where is it situated and what are its effects? (RAS, 1999)
92. What is religion? How are religion and philosophy related to each other? (RAS, 1999)
93. What do you mean by unification of taxes? (RAS, 1999)
94. Tell about the income sources of a state govt. ? (RAS, 1999)
95. Enumerate the causes of the decline of Buddhism? (MPPSC, 2000)
96. What is Human-Genome Project? What are its benefits for the future? (MPPSC, 2000)
97. What are the qualities that a leader should possess? (MPPSC, 2000)
98. Why did Baba Sahib Ambedkar change his religion? What was his specific sentence about Hindu religion? (MPPSC, 2000)
99. Which states are known as seven Sisters? What are their problems? (RAS, 1997)
100. Tell us about Kautilya and his economics. (RAS, 1997)
101. What are the qualities that an administrative officer should possess? (RAS, 1997)
102. What discussions were carried out in G-8 conference? (RAS, 1997)
103. What is the difference between drawing and painting? (RAS, 1999)
104. Tell about the characteristics of Kishangarh art? (RAS, 1999)
105. What do you mean by fad paintings? (RAS, 1999)
106. What is the biggest problem faced by India? (RAS, 1999)
107. What do you understand by a Heritage Hotel? Which part of our constitution is related to it ? (RAS, 1999)
108. What will be the impact on the economy of Bihar by the formation of Jharkhand State? (RAS, 1999)
109. What are the possible solutions for the present problems of rail ways? (IAS, 2000)
110. Should Railways be privatised or not or why? (IAS, 2000)
111. What are the benefits of computerisation in administration? (IAS, 2000)
112. In what ways can an employee in government be motivated? (IAS, 2000)
113. Who should be superior—an officer or a political leader ? (IAS, 2000)
114. Due to what reasons did terrorism exist in Punjab? (IAS, 2000)
115. How can corruption be prevented? (UPPCS, 2000)
116. Are the women able to fulfill their responsibilities in comparison to their male counterparts? (UPPCS, 2000)
117. Who is better among males and females? (MPPCS, 2000)
118. How can the problems of unemployment be solved? (MPPCS, 2000)
119. What is the difference between fundamental rights and fundamental duties? What was the need to make provision for the fundamental duties? (MPPCS, 2000)
120. Tell the measures of a Bigha an acre and a hectare. What is the relation between them? (RAS, 1999)
121. Why do land related disputes arise? (RAS, 1999)
122. Tell us about the computerisation of revenue Deptt. ? (RAS, 1999)
123. The river Ganges is known by what name in Bangaladesh ? (RAS, 1999)
124. Name the states and countries through which the river Ganga passes from its origin to end ? (RAS, 1999)
125. What is N.T.P.C.? (RAS, 1999)
126. What is Binary system? (IAS, 2000)
127. Tell us about the history of computers? (IAS, 2000)
128. What do you understand by gravity and Negative gravity? (IAS, 2000)
129. What do you know about G.S.L.V. ? (IAS, 2000)
130. What has been the contribution of Scartra and Kafka in Literature? (IAS, 2000)
67. How can inflation be controlled? (UPPCS, 1998)
68. Why are socialist countries of the world being attracted towards democracy? (UPPCS, 1988)
69. How can the judicial system in India be improved? (UPPCS, 1988)
70. Is the shrine situated at Ajmer secular? (RAS, 1999)
71. Was the merger of Ajmer in Rajasthan correct or not? (RAS, 1999)
72. What changes can be brought about in sales tax ? (RAS, 1999)
73. What are the eight wonders of the world? (RAS, 1999)
74. Which tower in India resembles the leaning tower of Pisa ? (RAS, 1999)
75. At present how much tax evasion is taking place? (RAS, 1999)
76. What are constitutional remedies? (BPCS, 1995)
77. What do you know about the Presidential form of election? (BPCS, 1995)
78. What is the difference between a Punch decision and adjudication? Do both have juridical power? (BPCS, 1995)
79. Why does a person become a criminal? How can crime be stopped? (BPCS, 1995)
80. What are the duties of police? (BPCS, 1995)
81. What is the role of regional parties? Tell us about the positive and negative aspects?
(UPPCS, 1996)
82. In what way does the mafia system of Italy work? (UPPCS, 1996)
83. How can we get rid of corruption? (UPPCS, 1996)
84. In what way is the Public Service Commission constituted? (UPPCS, 1995)
85. How many kinds of Tennis courts are there? (MPPSC, 1999)
86. Tell us about the Nine gems (Navratnas) of Akbar. (MPPSC, 1999)
87. How can corruption be eradicated from public services? (MPPSC, 1999)
88. What are the benefits of census and its dates? (MPPSC, 1999)
89. What do you understand by local self government? (MPPSC, 1999)
90. Tell us about the earthquake resistant civil designs. (MPPSC, 1999)
91. What is International date line? Where is it situated and what are its effects? (RAS, 1999)
92. What is religion? How are religion and philosophy related to each other? (RAS, 1999)
93. What do you mean by unification of taxes? (RAS, 1999)
94. Tell about the income sources of a state govt. ? (RAS, 1999)
95. Enumerate the causes of the decline of Buddhism? (MPPSC, 2000)
96. What is Human-Genome Project? What are its benefits for the future? (MPPSC, 2000)
97. What are the qualities that a leader should possess? (MPPSC, 2000)
98. Why did Baba Sahib Ambedkar change his religion? What was his specific sentence about Hindu religion? (MPPSC, 2000)
99. Which states are known as seven Sisters? What are their problems? (RAS, 1997)
100. Tell us about Kautilya and his economics. (RAS, 1997)
101. What are the qualities that an administrative officer should possess? (RAS, 1997)
102. What discussions were carried out in G-8 conference? (RAS, 1997)
103. What is the difference between drawing and painting? (RAS, 1999)
104. Tell about the characteristics of Kishangarh art? (RAS, 1999)
105. What do you mean by fad paintings? (RAS, 1999)
106. What is the biggest problem faced by India? (RAS, 1999)
107. What do you understand by a Heritage Hotel? Which part of our constitution is related to it ? (RAS, 1999)
108. What will be the impact on the economy of Bihar by the formation of Jharkhand State? (RAS, 1999)
109. What are the possible solutions for the present problems of rail ways? (IAS, 2000)
110. Should Railways be privatised or not or why? (IAS, 2000)
111. What are the benefits of computerisation in administration? (IAS, 2000)
112. In what ways can an employee in government be motivated? (IAS, 2000)
113. Who should be superior—an officer or a political leader ? (IAS, 2000)
114. Due to what reasons did terrorism exist in Punjab? (IAS, 2000)
115. How can corruption be prevented? (UPPCS, 2000)
116. Are the women able to fulfill their responsibilities in comparison to their male counterparts? (UPPCS, 2000)
117. Who is better among males and females? (MPPCS, 2000)
118. How can the problems of unemployment be solved? (MPPCS, 2000)
119. What is the difference between fundamental rights and fundamental duties? What was the need to make provision for the fundamental duties? (MPPCS, 2000)
120. Tell the measures of a Bigha an acre and a hectare. What is the relation between them? (RAS, 1999)
121. Why do land related disputes arise? (RAS, 1999)
122. Tell us about the computerisation of revenue Deptt. ? (RAS, 1999)
123. The river Ganges is known by what name in Bangaladesh ? (RAS, 1999)
124. Name the states and countries through which the river Ganga passes from its origin to end ? (RAS, 1999)
125. What is N.T.P.C.? (RAS, 1999)
126. What is Binary system? (IAS, 2000)
127. Tell us about the history of computers? (IAS, 2000)
128. What do you understand by gravity and Negative gravity? (IAS, 2000)
129. What do you know about G.S.L.V. ? (IAS, 2000)
130. What has been the contribution of Scartra and Kafka in Literature? (IAS, 2000)
PRATIYOGITA DARPAN
131. What is the significance of Sanskrit in the age of globlisation and science? (IAS, 2000)
132. What is the difference between G-7 and G-15 ? (IAS, 2000)
133. What was the role of Allahabad in the freedom struggle? (IAS, 2000)
134. Tell us about the background of Kumbh festival in Allahabad? (IAS, 2000)
135. What are the provisions in the constitution for freedom of religion ? (MPPCS, 2000)
136. How far is it correct to provide economic help to the religious minority by the Administration ? Is it unnecessary expenditure on the public fund? (MPPCS, 2000)
137. What is National Security Act? (MPPCS, 2000)
138. What is TADA? Do the provisions of TADA violate the principle of Natural Justice? (MPPCS, 2000)
139. What is Anticipatory Bail? Who can procure this kind of bail ? (MPPCS, 2000)
140. Can the President be arrested? (MPPCS, 2000)
141. What is disinvestment? Should disinvestment be done? What are its merits? (MPPCS, 2000)
142. What are the steps that administration takes to protect the interests of the employees in disinvestment? (MPPCS, 2000)
143. What are the provisions of reservation in Panchayati Raj ? (MPPCS, 2000)
144. Tell us about the measures to remove the financial irritants between centre and the states? (IAS, 2001)
145. Compare the income sources of the centre and the states. (IAS, 2001)
146. What is ocean pollution? (IAS, 2001)
147. What is the utility of different projections in a map? (IAS, 2001)
148. Tell us about the contribution of V.P. Menon? (IAS, 2001)
149. What is the role and responsibilities of an IAS officer? (IAS, 2001)
150. What is the inter-relationship between economics and politics? (IAS, 2001)
151. What is the role of F.C.L. ? (IAS, 2001)
152. What is the difference between central excise and state excise? (IAS, 2001)
153. What is the role of nonalignment in the present unipolar world? (IAS, 2001)
154. How is cleaning of Gomati related to Ganga welfare project? (IAS, 2001)
155. What is the future of co-operation institutions in India? (IAS, 2001)
156. Why is objectivity not possible in history? (IAS, 2002)
157. What is the difference between an article and an essay? (IAS, 2002)
158. What is child mortality rate? Tell the measures to reduce it ? (IAS, 2002)
159. What is ICDAP ? (IAS, 2002)
160. What is the significance of disinvestment? (IAS, 2002)
161. What lesson has India learnt from history? (IAS, 2002)
162. What is the place of values and principles in the political thinking that has come firstly at the national, then regional and lastly in parliamentary constituency level? Is it not necessary to completely reverse the total process? (IAS, 2002)
163. What is the significance of United Nations Organisation? (IAS, 2002)
164. Are the policies of Nehru, considered as correct and valid then still valid in the present context? (IAS, 2002)
165. What is the difference between present concept of globalization and the Ancient Indian concept of 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam' ? (IAS, 2002)
166. What is medium and what is goal in the concept of globalisation ? (lAS, 2002)
167. What is the difference between a change and development? (IAS, 2002)
168. Should all the changes be accepted? (IAS, 2002)
169. What are the ill-effects of globalisation in India? (IAS, 2002)
170. What is the difference between American and Chinese model of globalisation ? Which model has been adopted by India? (IAS, 2002)
171. What was Champaran movement? (BPCS, 2001)
172. Define crime and its major elements? (BPCS, 2001)
173. What is Koh-Suleman ? (BPCS, 2001)
174. Is it correct to give death sentence? If yes then why and if not then why not? (BPCS, 2001)
175. Can fundamental rights be amended? How many times have they been amended and what was the latest amendment? (BPCS, 2001)
176. Have the recent verdicts of the Supreme Court brought a social change? (BPCS, 2001)
177. What is the difference between IPC and Cr. P. C. ? (BPCS, 2001)
178. Tell us about the concept of democracy? (IAS, 2002)
179. Should the number of political parties be limited? (IAS, 2002)
180. Tell us about the sources of energy in India? (IAS, 2002)
181. Tell us about the measures for the improvement in power sector? (IAS, 2002)
182. What has been the effect of globalisation on the various areas of Indian economy? (IAS, 2002)
183. What is the significance of 'Swadeshi' ? (IAS, 2002)
184. What do you understand by the disinvestment policy? (IAS, 2002)
185. Enumerate the management capabilities of Indians? (IAS, 2002)
186. What is composite history? (IAS, 2002)
187. Why was Italy defeated in both the world wars? (IAS, 2002)
188. If second world war had not happened then would India have got Independence?
(IAS, 2002)
189. What is the importance of Munich in the history of the world? (IAS, 2002)
190. How can we protect our culture from the effects of westernisation ? (IAS, 2002)
191. What are the problems of hilly states? (IAS, 2002)
192. What has been the stand of India in the context of US-Iraq war? (IAS, 2002)
193. What do you understand by the globalisation ? (IAS, 2002)
194. What is the foreign policy of India towards Pakistan? (IAS, 2002)
195. What do you understand by Human genome project? (IAS, 2002)
196. What has been the reaction of India towards US-Iraq war? (IAS, 2003)
197. What is the difference between fundamental rights and fundamental duties? (BPCS, 2001)
198. What are the Directive Principles of State Policy? (BPCS, 2001)
199. Define public administration. (BPCS, 2001)
200. What is the difference between marginal income and marginal costs? (BPCS, 2001)
132. What is the difference between G-7 and G-15 ? (IAS, 2000)
133. What was the role of Allahabad in the freedom struggle? (IAS, 2000)
134. Tell us about the background of Kumbh festival in Allahabad? (IAS, 2000)
135. What are the provisions in the constitution for freedom of religion ? (MPPCS, 2000)
136. How far is it correct to provide economic help to the religious minority by the Administration ? Is it unnecessary expenditure on the public fund? (MPPCS, 2000)
137. What is National Security Act? (MPPCS, 2000)
138. What is TADA? Do the provisions of TADA violate the principle of Natural Justice? (MPPCS, 2000)
139. What is Anticipatory Bail? Who can procure this kind of bail ? (MPPCS, 2000)
140. Can the President be arrested? (MPPCS, 2000)
141. What is disinvestment? Should disinvestment be done? What are its merits? (MPPCS, 2000)
142. What are the steps that administration takes to protect the interests of the employees in disinvestment? (MPPCS, 2000)
143. What are the provisions of reservation in Panchayati Raj ? (MPPCS, 2000)
144. Tell us about the measures to remove the financial irritants between centre and the states? (IAS, 2001)
145. Compare the income sources of the centre and the states. (IAS, 2001)
146. What is ocean pollution? (IAS, 2001)
147. What is the utility of different projections in a map? (IAS, 2001)
148. Tell us about the contribution of V.P. Menon? (IAS, 2001)
149. What is the role and responsibilities of an IAS officer? (IAS, 2001)
150. What is the inter-relationship between economics and politics? (IAS, 2001)
151. What is the role of F.C.L. ? (IAS, 2001)
152. What is the difference between central excise and state excise? (IAS, 2001)
153. What is the role of nonalignment in the present unipolar world? (IAS, 2001)
154. How is cleaning of Gomati related to Ganga welfare project? (IAS, 2001)
155. What is the future of co-operation institutions in India? (IAS, 2001)
156. Why is objectivity not possible in history? (IAS, 2002)
157. What is the difference between an article and an essay? (IAS, 2002)
158. What is child mortality rate? Tell the measures to reduce it ? (IAS, 2002)
159. What is ICDAP ? (IAS, 2002)
160. What is the significance of disinvestment? (IAS, 2002)
161. What lesson has India learnt from history? (IAS, 2002)
162. What is the place of values and principles in the political thinking that has come firstly at the national, then regional and lastly in parliamentary constituency level? Is it not necessary to completely reverse the total process? (IAS, 2002)
163. What is the significance of United Nations Organisation? (IAS, 2002)
164. Are the policies of Nehru, considered as correct and valid then still valid in the present context? (IAS, 2002)
165. What is the difference between present concept of globalization and the Ancient Indian concept of 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam' ? (IAS, 2002)
166. What is medium and what is goal in the concept of globalisation ? (lAS, 2002)
167. What is the difference between a change and development? (IAS, 2002)
168. Should all the changes be accepted? (IAS, 2002)
169. What are the ill-effects of globalisation in India? (IAS, 2002)
170. What is the difference between American and Chinese model of globalisation ? Which model has been adopted by India? (IAS, 2002)
171. What was Champaran movement? (BPCS, 2001)
172. Define crime and its major elements? (BPCS, 2001)
173. What is Koh-Suleman ? (BPCS, 2001)
174. Is it correct to give death sentence? If yes then why and if not then why not? (BPCS, 2001)
175. Can fundamental rights be amended? How many times have they been amended and what was the latest amendment? (BPCS, 2001)
176. Have the recent verdicts of the Supreme Court brought a social change? (BPCS, 2001)
177. What is the difference between IPC and Cr. P. C. ? (BPCS, 2001)
178. Tell us about the concept of democracy? (IAS, 2002)
179. Should the number of political parties be limited? (IAS, 2002)
180. Tell us about the sources of energy in India? (IAS, 2002)
181. Tell us about the measures for the improvement in power sector? (IAS, 2002)
182. What has been the effect of globalisation on the various areas of Indian economy? (IAS, 2002)
183. What is the significance of 'Swadeshi' ? (IAS, 2002)
184. What do you understand by the disinvestment policy? (IAS, 2002)
185. Enumerate the management capabilities of Indians? (IAS, 2002)
186. What is composite history? (IAS, 2002)
187. Why was Italy defeated in both the world wars? (IAS, 2002)
188. If second world war had not happened then would India have got Independence?
(IAS, 2002)
189. What is the importance of Munich in the history of the world? (IAS, 2002)
190. How can we protect our culture from the effects of westernisation ? (IAS, 2002)
191. What are the problems of hilly states? (IAS, 2002)
192. What has been the stand of India in the context of US-Iraq war? (IAS, 2002)
193. What do you understand by the globalisation ? (IAS, 2002)
194. What is the foreign policy of India towards Pakistan? (IAS, 2002)
195. What do you understand by Human genome project? (IAS, 2002)
196. What has been the reaction of India towards US-Iraq war? (IAS, 2003)
197. What is the difference between fundamental rights and fundamental duties? (BPCS, 2001)
198. What are the Directive Principles of State Policy? (BPCS, 2001)
199. Define public administration. (BPCS, 2001)
200. What is the difference between marginal income and marginal costs? (BPCS, 2001)
Competition Success Review (CSR)
Duronto Express:
1. Chennai – Thiruvananthapuram AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
2. Mumbai – Allahabad AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
3. Chennai – Madurai AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
4. Mumbai Central – Delhi AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
5. Ahmedabad – Pune AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
6. Secunderabad-Visakhapatnam AC Exp. (Tri-weekly)
7. Nizamuddin- Ajmer non-AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
8. Sealdah-Puri non-AC Exp. (Tri-weekly)
9. Shalimar-Patna AC Exp. (Tri-weekly)
Double Decker AC Trains :
1. Mumbai – Ahemedabad AC Double Decker
2. Delhi – Jaipur AC Double Decker
Shatabdi Express Trains:
1. Jaipur – Agra Shatabdi Express
2. Pune – Secunderabad Shatabdi Express
3. Delhi – Ludhiana Shatabdi Express
Vivek Express Trains:
1. Bandra(Terminus)-Jammu Tawi – Vivek Express via Marwar-Degana-Ratangarh-Jakhal-Ludhiana. (Weekly)
2. Dibrugarh -Thiruvantharam-Kanyakumari – Vivek Express via Kokrajhar. (Weekly)
3. Howrah-Mangalore Vivek Express via Palghat. (Weekly)
4. Dwarka-Tuticorin Express via Wadi (Weekly)
Kavi Guru Express Trains:
1. Howrah-Azimganj Kavi Guru Express (Daily)
2. Guwahati-Jaipur Kavi Guru Express (Weekly)
3. Howrah-Bolpur Kavi Guru Express (Daily)
4. Howrah – Porbandar Kavi Guru Express (Weekly)
Rajya Rani Express Trains:
1. Sawantwadi Road-Mumbai Express (Daily)
2. Saharsa-Patna Intercity Express (Daily)
3. Meerut-Lucknow Intercity Express (Daily)
4. Mysore-Bangalore Express (Daily)
5. Damoh-Bhopal Intercity Express (Daily)
6. Silghat-Dhubri Intercity Express (Tri-weekly via Guwahati-Kokrajhar-Jogighopa)
7. Bankura-Howrah Express (Tri-weekly)
8. Nilambur Road-Thiruvananthapuram Link Express (Daily)
9. Jharsuguda-Bhubaneswar Express (Tri-weekly)
10. Manmad-Mumbai Express (Daily) via Nasik
1. Chennai – Thiruvananthapuram AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
2. Mumbai – Allahabad AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
3. Chennai – Madurai AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
4. Mumbai Central – Delhi AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
5. Ahmedabad – Pune AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
6. Secunderabad-Visakhapatnam AC Exp. (Tri-weekly)
7. Nizamuddin- Ajmer non-AC Exp. (Bi-weekly)
8. Sealdah-Puri non-AC Exp. (Tri-weekly)
9. Shalimar-Patna AC Exp. (Tri-weekly)
Double Decker AC Trains :
1. Mumbai – Ahemedabad AC Double Decker
2. Delhi – Jaipur AC Double Decker
Shatabdi Express Trains:
1. Jaipur – Agra Shatabdi Express
2. Pune – Secunderabad Shatabdi Express
3. Delhi – Ludhiana Shatabdi Express
Vivek Express Trains:
1. Bandra(Terminus)-Jammu Tawi – Vivek Express via Marwar-Degana-Ratangarh-Jakhal-Ludhiana. (Weekly)
2. Dibrugarh -Thiruvantharam-Kanyakumari – Vivek Express via Kokrajhar. (Weekly)
3. Howrah-Mangalore Vivek Express via Palghat. (Weekly)
4. Dwarka-Tuticorin Express via Wadi (Weekly)
Kavi Guru Express Trains:
1. Howrah-Azimganj Kavi Guru Express (Daily)
2. Guwahati-Jaipur Kavi Guru Express (Weekly)
3. Howrah-Bolpur Kavi Guru Express (Daily)
4. Howrah – Porbandar Kavi Guru Express (Weekly)
Rajya Rani Express Trains:
1. Sawantwadi Road-Mumbai Express (Daily)
2. Saharsa-Patna Intercity Express (Daily)
3. Meerut-Lucknow Intercity Express (Daily)
4. Mysore-Bangalore Express (Daily)
5. Damoh-Bhopal Intercity Express (Daily)
6. Silghat-Dhubri Intercity Express (Tri-weekly via Guwahati-Kokrajhar-Jogighopa)
7. Bankura-Howrah Express (Tri-weekly)
8. Nilambur Road-Thiruvananthapuram Link Express (Daily)
9. Jharsuguda-Bhubaneswar Express (Tri-weekly)
10. Manmad-Mumbai Express (Daily) via Nasik
Indian Overseas Bank Clerk Exam., 2011
(Held on 29-5-2011)
English Language : Solved Paper
Directions– (Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time, there was a shrewd shopkeeper called Makarand. He had a friend called Mihir, who had saved a lot of money. Mihir was keen on going on a pilgrimage, but he did not know where to leave his precious savings. So he came to Makarand's shop and said, "My friend, I trust you more than anyone. Could you please look after my life's savings till I return from my pilgrimage?" Makarand pretended to be deep in thought, and then said, "I would rather not. Money spoils relationships. What if something happens to your money while you are away? You will no longer be my friend.’’
As Mihir stood there by his shop thinking about what his friend had just said, an old woman entered the shop and bought some things. One of the boys helping Makarand, gave her less change than he should have. Maka-rand saw this and pretended to scold the boy, he then ordered him to return the remaining money to the woman. Mihir not knowing that this was an act put up by Makarand to make him believe that he was honest, was convinced about his decision and said to Makarand, "I have decided. I will leave the money only with you." Makarand smiled. "Then let us do something. Let's take the bag of coins and bury it in a place that only you and I will know of. That way, even if something happens to me while you are away, you will know where your money is."
Mihir, simple that he was, thought this was a good idea and the two went and hid the bag in a secret place. Mihir left the next day on his pilgrimage, happy his savings were in safe hands. Six months later, Mihir returned. He dumped his luggage at home and went to dig out his bag of savings. But even though he searched and searched for his valuables, there was no sign of the bag anywhere. In panic, he ran to Makarand, who was busy in his shop. When Mihir asked him about the bag, Makarand pretended to be surprised, "But I did not go that way in all these months. Why don't you search for it again ?" he said, putting on his most innocent look. Mihir had no choice but to believe him. Sadly, he went home.
On the way, as luck would have it, he met the old woman he had seen in Makarand's shop. Seeing him sad, she asked him what the matter was. Mihir told her the whole story .Then she smiled and whispered a plan to him. Not long after, the woman came to Makarand's shop, carrying a big box. "Brother, I heard you are a good and honest man. My son went on a pilgrimage many months ago and has still not returned. I am worried and have decided to go and look for him. Will you look after my box of two hundred gold coins while I am away ?"
Makarand could not believe his luck. He was about to launch into his idea about hiding the box, when an angry Mihir entered the shop, 'Where is …………' but before he could complete his sentence; Makarand, afraid of being accused in front of the old woman, said quickly, “I forgot. I had seen some pigs digging around there and had removed the bag just to keep it safe. Here it is.” And he handed Mihir the bag he had stolen many months ago.
Now, the old woman pretended she was seeing Mihir for the first time, "Son, did you also go on a pilgrimage? Could you tell me if you : met my son anywhere ? His name is ; Jahangir." Mihir, clutching onto his precious bag, said, "Yes, Auntie, I met him on the road a few villages r away. He was on his way to home. t He should be here in a week."
The old woman leaned over and took her box away from Makarand. "Thank you, brother, you have saved me an unnecessary trip. Now, I will need some money to prepare for my son's welcome," she added and the two left the shop. Makarand could only stare at them open-mouthed.
1. What incident in the passage convinced Mihir that Makarand was indeed an honest man ?
(a) The incident where he scolded his helper boy for returning less change to the old woman who was a customer in his shop.
(b) The fact that Makarand refused to keep Mihir's money, in the event that it might destroy their friendship.
(c) The incident where Makarand told Mihir that he had kept his bag with him as he saw pigs digging at the very spot where the treasure was buried.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (b) and (c)
(E) Only (a) and (c)
Ans : (A)
2. What was Makarand's real intention for wanting to bury Mihir's bag of valuables ?
(A) He wanted Mihir to know where the money would be in case something happened to him while Mihir was away
(B) He did not feel safe keeping Mihir's bag of valuables with him
(C) He wanted to steal the money while Mihir was away
(D) He wanted the pigs to dig out the bag so he could steal it
(E) He wanted to be a part of a far more adventurous plan
Ans : (C)
3. Where did Makarand and Mihir bury the bag of coins ?
(A) In a secret place in Mihir's garden
(B) In the ground under Makarand's shop
(C) In the old woman's backyard
(D) In his shop
(E) Not indicated in the passage
Ans : (E)
4. Which of the following is true with regard to Mihir ?
(A) Mihir accused Makarand of stealing his valuables
(B) Mihir helped the old woman find her son
(C) Mihir left his life's savings with the old woman
(D) Mihir trusted Makarand with his valuables
(E) Mihir strongly believed that keeping others' money spoilt relationships
Ans : (D)
5. Why did Mihir want to keep his life's savings with Makarand ?
(a) Makarand had a locker in his shop.
(b) He trusted his friend Makarand more than anyone else.
(c) He was scared that if he buried his savings, the pigs would dig it out.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Either (b) or (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. Which of the following statements is false according to passage ?
(A) The old woman's son went on the same pilgrimage as Mihir
(B) The old woman helped Mihir recover his savings from Makarand
(C) Makarand was a very shrewd shopkeeper
(D) Mihir had gone away on a pilgrimage
(E) Makarand had stolen Mihir's money
Ans : (A)
7. Why was Mihir sad after returning from the pilgrimage ?
(a) He lost all his valuables while returning from the pilgrimage.
(b) The valuables that he had buried safely had all disappeared. ]
(c) He had spent far too much of his savings on the pilgrimage.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (b) and (c)
(D) Only (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. In the end, why did Makarand return Mihir's money ?
(a) He realised that he had done the wrong thing by pretending to be unaware of Mihir's misfortune.
(b) The old woman offered to give him two hundred gold coins if he returned Mihir's money back.
(c) He did not want to be accused of having stolen Mihir's money in front of the old woman.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (a) and (c)
(E) All (a), (b) and (c)
Ans : (C)
Directions– (Q. 9–12) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word/s printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. Clutching
(A) Releasing
(B) Fixing
(C) Holding
(D) Sticking
(E) Obtaining
Ans : (C)
10. Keen
(A) Eager
(B) Hurried
(C) Planning
(D) Fortunate
(E) Deserving
Ans : (A)
11. Choice
(A) Understanding
(B) Regard
(C) Value
(D) Pick
(E) Option
Ans : (E)
12. Whole
(A) Partial
(B) Some
(C) Entire
(D) Total
(E) Part
Ans : (C)
Directions– (Q. 13–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
13. Complete
(A) Partial
(B) Start
(C) Incomplete
(D) End
(E) Finish
Ans : (B)
14. Sadly
(A) Quietly
(B) Dejectedly
(C) Happily
(D) Disturbingly
(E) Lonely
Ans : (C)
15. Forgot
(A) Found
(B) Memorised
(C) Lost
(D) Claimed
(E) Remembered
Ans : (E)
Directions– (Q. 16–20) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence, The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. 'No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
16. The more enlightened (A) / factory owners (B) / build homes for their (C) / workers in Britain in the 19th century. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
17. Most criminals (A) / realises that they may be caught, (B) / but nevertheless (C) / they are prepared to take the risk. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
18. Strictly speaking, (A) / spiders are not insects, (B) / although most people (C) / think them are. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
19. The actress is also (A) / widely respected in (B) / the music world (C) / and deserving so. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
20. The story was (A) / inspired by (B) / a chance meeting (C) / with an old Russian duke. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
Directions– (Q. 21–25) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
21. He is held regard as the Chief's right-hand man.
(A) regards as
(B) to regard as
(C) regarded as
(D) being regarded for
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
22. The inquiry has to bring to light some starting facts .
(A) bring light to
(B) brought to the lights
(C) brings to light
(D) brought to light
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
23. My friend went his way out to oblige me.
(A) out on his way
(B) out of his way
(C) so out of the way
(D) little way out
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
24. They are determined to stand up for their rights.
(A) be standing up
(B) for standing up
(C) stand up to
(D) stand on
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
25. Recently my expenses have gone run up considerably.
(A) run up
(B) to rise up
(C) had to run up
(D) got upwards
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
Directions– (Q. 26–30) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
26. Rachana saw me…………for a bus, she stopped and …………me a lift.
(A) standing – took
(B) stopped – gave
(C) walking – sat
(D) testing – signalled
(E) waiting – offered
Ans : (E)
27. During winter, we can…………ourselves from the cold by wearing…………clothes.
(A) protect – warm
(B) establish – light
(C) save – good
(D) stop – thick
(E) escape – cotton
Ans : (A)
28. The school refused to…………acts of …………behaviour.
(A) overcome – spoilt
(B) tolerate – violent
(C) overlook – sudden
(D) appreciate – bravery
(E) comment – deserving
Ans : (B)
29. The actor was not …………by public criticism and paid no…………even to the poor reviews in the media.
(A) affected – attention
(B) troubled – mind
(C) effected – regard
(D) bothered – justification
(E) shocked – notices
Ans : (A)
30. The…………words of the teacher comforted the…………student.
(A) harsh – sorrowful
(B) encouraging – anxious
(C) reality – nervous
(D) wise – happy
(E) distracter – confused
Ans : (B)
Directions–(Q. 31–35) In each question below, four words printed in bold are given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e.' All Correct' as your answer.
31. An overly (A) obsessed (B) mother from Banaras wrote (C) in to tell me of her trajedy. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)
32. The cat is sitting in front (A) of the television (B) with its tail, stretched (C) out strait. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)
33. It would (A) be wrong to infer (B) that people who are overweight (C) are always sickly. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)
34. The witness (A) stated (B) that he had not sean (C) the woman before. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (C)
35. Her giggles (A) were infecsious (B) and soon (C) we were all laughing. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)
Directions– (Q. 36–40) Rearrange the following five sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) The owner of the house was furious.
(b) After it had gone, a donkey who craved popularity climbed the roof and tried to perform the same tricks.
(c) His servants went up, drove the donkey down, and beat him black and blue.
(d) A monkey climbed the roof of a house and entertained the people who had gathered below to watch him at his antics.
(e) In the process, the donkey dislodged and broke several tiles.
36. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (D)
37. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) e
(B) d
(C) c
(D) b
(E) a
Ans : (D)
38. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (C)
39. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (E)
40. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (A)
Directions– (Q. 41–50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The Emperor of China ...(41)... some peaches to the king of Tondmandalam with a note ...(42)...that the fruit gives long life to anyone who eats them. As the fruits were being shown to the ruler, Raffia, giving in to temptation, ...(43)... up one of the luscious peaches and ...(44)... into it. The king was ...(45) "You've bitten into a fruit ...(46)... for me !" he thundered. "For this you must die !" As Raffia was being taken away by the royal guards he sighed dramatically and exclaimed: "What a deceitful man the Emperor of China is. He ...(47)... the fruit gives long life. I took just one bite and I am about to die. Oh, what fate ...(48)... the one who eats the entire fruit !" The king was ...(49)... amused by Raffia's wit. He not only ...(50)... him but gave him a dozen of the peaches he had risked his life for .
41. (A) parcel
(B) grown
(C) bought
(D) sent
(E) give
Ans : (D)
42. (A) stating
(B) attach
(C) stuck
(D) telling
(E) meaning
Ans : (A)
43. (A) reached
(B) picked
(C) take
(D) secured
(E) stole
Ans : (B)
44. (A) touched
(B) smell
(C) opened
(D) bit
(E) look
Ans : (D)
45. (A) enraged
(B) harsh
(C) teasing
(D) eager
(E) sober
Ans : (A)
46. (A) parcel
(B) made
(C) designed
(D) send
(E) meant
Ans : (E)
47. (A) promises
(B) directed
(C) said
(D) told
(E) meant
Ans : (A)
48. (A) has
(B) holds
(C) awaits
(D) for
(E) stores
Ans : (C)
49. (A) also
(B) farther
(C) being
(D) little
(E) greatly
Ans : (E)
50. (A) rejected
(B) pardoned
(C) praise
(D) left
(E) forgive
Ans : (B)
English Language : Solved Paper
Directions– (Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.
Once upon a time, there was a shrewd shopkeeper called Makarand. He had a friend called Mihir, who had saved a lot of money. Mihir was keen on going on a pilgrimage, but he did not know where to leave his precious savings. So he came to Makarand's shop and said, "My friend, I trust you more than anyone. Could you please look after my life's savings till I return from my pilgrimage?" Makarand pretended to be deep in thought, and then said, "I would rather not. Money spoils relationships. What if something happens to your money while you are away? You will no longer be my friend.’’
As Mihir stood there by his shop thinking about what his friend had just said, an old woman entered the shop and bought some things. One of the boys helping Makarand, gave her less change than he should have. Maka-rand saw this and pretended to scold the boy, he then ordered him to return the remaining money to the woman. Mihir not knowing that this was an act put up by Makarand to make him believe that he was honest, was convinced about his decision and said to Makarand, "I have decided. I will leave the money only with you." Makarand smiled. "Then let us do something. Let's take the bag of coins and bury it in a place that only you and I will know of. That way, even if something happens to me while you are away, you will know where your money is."
Mihir, simple that he was, thought this was a good idea and the two went and hid the bag in a secret place. Mihir left the next day on his pilgrimage, happy his savings were in safe hands. Six months later, Mihir returned. He dumped his luggage at home and went to dig out his bag of savings. But even though he searched and searched for his valuables, there was no sign of the bag anywhere. In panic, he ran to Makarand, who was busy in his shop. When Mihir asked him about the bag, Makarand pretended to be surprised, "But I did not go that way in all these months. Why don't you search for it again ?" he said, putting on his most innocent look. Mihir had no choice but to believe him. Sadly, he went home.
On the way, as luck would have it, he met the old woman he had seen in Makarand's shop. Seeing him sad, she asked him what the matter was. Mihir told her the whole story .Then she smiled and whispered a plan to him. Not long after, the woman came to Makarand's shop, carrying a big box. "Brother, I heard you are a good and honest man. My son went on a pilgrimage many months ago and has still not returned. I am worried and have decided to go and look for him. Will you look after my box of two hundred gold coins while I am away ?"
Makarand could not believe his luck. He was about to launch into his idea about hiding the box, when an angry Mihir entered the shop, 'Where is …………' but before he could complete his sentence; Makarand, afraid of being accused in front of the old woman, said quickly, “I forgot. I had seen some pigs digging around there and had removed the bag just to keep it safe. Here it is.” And he handed Mihir the bag he had stolen many months ago.
Now, the old woman pretended she was seeing Mihir for the first time, "Son, did you also go on a pilgrimage? Could you tell me if you : met my son anywhere ? His name is ; Jahangir." Mihir, clutching onto his precious bag, said, "Yes, Auntie, I met him on the road a few villages r away. He was on his way to home. t He should be here in a week."
The old woman leaned over and took her box away from Makarand. "Thank you, brother, you have saved me an unnecessary trip. Now, I will need some money to prepare for my son's welcome," she added and the two left the shop. Makarand could only stare at them open-mouthed.
1. What incident in the passage convinced Mihir that Makarand was indeed an honest man ?
(a) The incident where he scolded his helper boy for returning less change to the old woman who was a customer in his shop.
(b) The fact that Makarand refused to keep Mihir's money, in the event that it might destroy their friendship.
(c) The incident where Makarand told Mihir that he had kept his bag with him as he saw pigs digging at the very spot where the treasure was buried.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (b) and (c)
(E) Only (a) and (c)
Ans : (A)
2. What was Makarand's real intention for wanting to bury Mihir's bag of valuables ?
(A) He wanted Mihir to know where the money would be in case something happened to him while Mihir was away
(B) He did not feel safe keeping Mihir's bag of valuables with him
(C) He wanted to steal the money while Mihir was away
(D) He wanted the pigs to dig out the bag so he could steal it
(E) He wanted to be a part of a far more adventurous plan
Ans : (C)
3. Where did Makarand and Mihir bury the bag of coins ?
(A) In a secret place in Mihir's garden
(B) In the ground under Makarand's shop
(C) In the old woman's backyard
(D) In his shop
(E) Not indicated in the passage
Ans : (E)
4. Which of the following is true with regard to Mihir ?
(A) Mihir accused Makarand of stealing his valuables
(B) Mihir helped the old woman find her son
(C) Mihir left his life's savings with the old woman
(D) Mihir trusted Makarand with his valuables
(E) Mihir strongly believed that keeping others' money spoilt relationships
Ans : (D)
5. Why did Mihir want to keep his life's savings with Makarand ?
(a) Makarand had a locker in his shop.
(b) He trusted his friend Makarand more than anyone else.
(c) He was scared that if he buried his savings, the pigs would dig it out.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Either (b) or (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. Which of the following statements is false according to passage ?
(A) The old woman's son went on the same pilgrimage as Mihir
(B) The old woman helped Mihir recover his savings from Makarand
(C) Makarand was a very shrewd shopkeeper
(D) Mihir had gone away on a pilgrimage
(E) Makarand had stolen Mihir's money
Ans : (A)
7. Why was Mihir sad after returning from the pilgrimage ?
(a) He lost all his valuables while returning from the pilgrimage.
(b) The valuables that he had buried safely had all disappeared. ]
(c) He had spent far too much of his savings on the pilgrimage.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (b) and (c)
(D) Only (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. In the end, why did Makarand return Mihir's money ?
(a) He realised that he had done the wrong thing by pretending to be unaware of Mihir's misfortune.
(b) The old woman offered to give him two hundred gold coins if he returned Mihir's money back.
(c) He did not want to be accused of having stolen Mihir's money in front of the old woman.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) Only (a) and (c)
(E) All (a), (b) and (c)
Ans : (C)
Directions– (Q. 9–12) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word/s printed in bold as used in the passage.
9. Clutching
(A) Releasing
(B) Fixing
(C) Holding
(D) Sticking
(E) Obtaining
Ans : (C)
10. Keen
(A) Eager
(B) Hurried
(C) Planning
(D) Fortunate
(E) Deserving
Ans : (A)
11. Choice
(A) Understanding
(B) Regard
(C) Value
(D) Pick
(E) Option
Ans : (E)
12. Whole
(A) Partial
(B) Some
(C) Entire
(D) Total
(E) Part
Ans : (C)
Directions– (Q. 13–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
13. Complete
(A) Partial
(B) Start
(C) Incomplete
(D) End
(E) Finish
Ans : (B)
14. Sadly
(A) Quietly
(B) Dejectedly
(C) Happily
(D) Disturbingly
(E) Lonely
Ans : (C)
15. Forgot
(A) Found
(B) Memorised
(C) Lost
(D) Claimed
(E) Remembered
Ans : (E)
Directions– (Q. 16–20) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence, The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e. 'No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
16. The more enlightened (A) / factory owners (B) / build homes for their (C) / workers in Britain in the 19th century. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
17. Most criminals (A) / realises that they may be caught, (B) / but nevertheless (C) / they are prepared to take the risk. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
18. Strictly speaking, (A) / spiders are not insects, (B) / although most people (C) / think them are. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
19. The actress is also (A) / widely respected in (B) / the music world (C) / and deserving so. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
20. The story was (A) / inspired by (B) / a chance meeting (C) / with an old Russian duke. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
Directions– (Q. 21–25) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
21. He is held regard as the Chief's right-hand man.
(A) regards as
(B) to regard as
(C) regarded as
(D) being regarded for
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
22. The inquiry has to bring to light some starting facts .
(A) bring light to
(B) brought to the lights
(C) brings to light
(D) brought to light
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
23. My friend went his way out to oblige me.
(A) out on his way
(B) out of his way
(C) so out of the way
(D) little way out
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
24. They are determined to stand up for their rights.
(A) be standing up
(B) for standing up
(C) stand up to
(D) stand on
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
25. Recently my expenses have gone run up considerably.
(A) run up
(B) to rise up
(C) had to run up
(D) got upwards
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
Directions– (Q. 26–30) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
26. Rachana saw me…………for a bus, she stopped and …………me a lift.
(A) standing – took
(B) stopped – gave
(C) walking – sat
(D) testing – signalled
(E) waiting – offered
Ans : (E)
27. During winter, we can…………ourselves from the cold by wearing…………clothes.
(A) protect – warm
(B) establish – light
(C) save – good
(D) stop – thick
(E) escape – cotton
Ans : (A)
28. The school refused to…………acts of …………behaviour.
(A) overcome – spoilt
(B) tolerate – violent
(C) overlook – sudden
(D) appreciate – bravery
(E) comment – deserving
Ans : (B)
29. The actor was not …………by public criticism and paid no…………even to the poor reviews in the media.
(A) affected – attention
(B) troubled – mind
(C) effected – regard
(D) bothered – justification
(E) shocked – notices
Ans : (A)
30. The…………words of the teacher comforted the…………student.
(A) harsh – sorrowful
(B) encouraging – anxious
(C) reality – nervous
(D) wise – happy
(E) distracter – confused
Ans : (B)
Directions–(Q. 31–35) In each question below, four words printed in bold are given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e.' All Correct' as your answer.
31. An overly (A) obsessed (B) mother from Banaras wrote (C) in to tell me of her trajedy. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)
32. The cat is sitting in front (A) of the television (B) with its tail, stretched (C) out strait. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)
33. It would (A) be wrong to infer (B) that people who are overweight (C) are always sickly. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (D)
34. The witness (A) stated (B) that he had not sean (C) the woman before. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (C)
35. Her giggles (A) were infecsious (B) and soon (C) we were all laughing. (D) All Correct (E)
Ans : (B)
Directions– (Q. 36–40) Rearrange the following five sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) The owner of the house was furious.
(b) After it had gone, a donkey who craved popularity climbed the roof and tried to perform the same tricks.
(c) His servants went up, drove the donkey down, and beat him black and blue.
(d) A monkey climbed the roof of a house and entertained the people who had gathered below to watch him at his antics.
(e) In the process, the donkey dislodged and broke several tiles.
36. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (D)
37. Which of the following should be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) e
(B) d
(C) c
(D) b
(E) a
Ans : (D)
38. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (C)
39. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (E)
40. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) d
(E) e
Ans : (A)
Directions– (Q. 41–50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The Emperor of China ...(41)... some peaches to the king of Tondmandalam with a note ...(42)...that the fruit gives long life to anyone who eats them. As the fruits were being shown to the ruler, Raffia, giving in to temptation, ...(43)... up one of the luscious peaches and ...(44)... into it. The king was ...(45) "You've bitten into a fruit ...(46)... for me !" he thundered. "For this you must die !" As Raffia was being taken away by the royal guards he sighed dramatically and exclaimed: "What a deceitful man the Emperor of China is. He ...(47)... the fruit gives long life. I took just one bite and I am about to die. Oh, what fate ...(48)... the one who eats the entire fruit !" The king was ...(49)... amused by Raffia's wit. He not only ...(50)... him but gave him a dozen of the peaches he had risked his life for .
41. (A) parcel
(B) grown
(C) bought
(D) sent
(E) give
Ans : (D)
42. (A) stating
(B) attach
(C) stuck
(D) telling
(E) meaning
Ans : (A)
43. (A) reached
(B) picked
(C) take
(D) secured
(E) stole
Ans : (B)
44. (A) touched
(B) smell
(C) opened
(D) bit
(E) look
Ans : (D)
45. (A) enraged
(B) harsh
(C) teasing
(D) eager
(E) sober
Ans : (A)
46. (A) parcel
(B) made
(C) designed
(D) send
(E) meant
Ans : (E)
47. (A) promises
(B) directed
(C) said
(D) told
(E) meant
Ans : (A)
48. (A) has
(B) holds
(C) awaits
(D) for
(E) stores
Ans : (C)
49. (A) also
(B) farther
(C) being
(D) little
(E) greatly
Ans : (E)
50. (A) rejected
(B) pardoned
(C) praise
(D) left
(E) forgive
Ans : (B)
Andhara Pragathi Grameena Bank – 231 Officers Post
About:
Andhara Pragathi Grameena was under the sponsership of Syndicate Bank. This Bank was started at 1st July 2006 and total of 385 brachches, 5 regional offices in all over the India. Grameena Bank was awarded as BestBank by the Government of Andhra Pradesh in the period of 17th January 2007 to 15th January 2010. It invites the Indian Citizen for the post of different level of officers in the domicle of Andhra Pradesh.
Important Dates:
Begining date for online application: 29th October 2011
Ending date for online application: 28th November 2011
Date of Written Examination: 8th January 2012 for all post and 15th January 2012 for Clerical Cadre post.
Number Of Post & Payscale:
1. MMGS-III(Officers) – 1 Post – Rs. 25700 to 31500
2. MMGS-II(Officers) – 20 Post – Rs. 19400 to 28100
3. JMGS–I(Officers) – 82 Post – Rs. 14500 to 25700
4. Clerical Cadre – 128 Post – Rs. 7200 to 19300
Fees Details:
Rs.300 for General and OBC Candidates and
Rs.50 for SC/ST/Ex/PWD Candidates.
Candidates are advised to download the challan from bank website. Fees should be paid either Syndicate bank or Pragathi Grameena Bank.
Eligibility:
1. Candidate must be an Indian or Nepal or Bhutan or Tibetan refugee.
2. Minumum age should be 21 years for MMGS-III & II post and 18 years for JMGS–I & Clerical Cadre
3. Must have a bachelor degree or its equivalent.
Selection procedure:
Final selection is made on the following:
1. Written Examination and
2. Interview
Andhara Pragathi Grameena was under the sponsership of Syndicate Bank. This Bank was started at 1st July 2006 and total of 385 brachches, 5 regional offices in all over the India. Grameena Bank was awarded as BestBank by the Government of Andhra Pradesh in the period of 17th January 2007 to 15th January 2010. It invites the Indian Citizen for the post of different level of officers in the domicle of Andhra Pradesh.
Important Dates:
Begining date for online application: 29th October 2011
Ending date for online application: 28th November 2011
Date of Written Examination: 8th January 2012 for all post and 15th January 2012 for Clerical Cadre post.
Number Of Post & Payscale:
1. MMGS-III(Officers) – 1 Post – Rs. 25700 to 31500
2. MMGS-II(Officers) – 20 Post – Rs. 19400 to 28100
3. JMGS–I(Officers) – 82 Post – Rs. 14500 to 25700
4. Clerical Cadre – 128 Post – Rs. 7200 to 19300
Fees Details:
Rs.300 for General and OBC Candidates and
Rs.50 for SC/ST/Ex/PWD Candidates.
Candidates are advised to download the challan from bank website. Fees should be paid either Syndicate bank or Pragathi Grameena Bank.
Eligibility:
1. Candidate must be an Indian or Nepal or Bhutan or Tibetan refugee.
2. Minumum age should be 21 years for MMGS-III & II post and 18 years for JMGS–I & Clerical Cadre
3. Must have a bachelor degree or its equivalent.
Selection procedure:
Final selection is made on the following:
1. Written Examination and
2. Interview
Friday 25 November 2011
Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) January 2012
Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) January 2012
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 30, 2011.
Educational Qualifications—Senior Secondary or its equivalent with at least 50% marks.
Selection Procedure—Paper I will be for a person who intends to be a teacher class I to V and Paper II will be for a person who intends to be a teacher for classes VI to VIII.
How to Apply—Application Form Fee for General/OBC candidates is Rs. 500. More information about method of application can be found at www.cbse.nic.in/www.ctet. nic.in
Log onto www.cbse.nic.in/ www.ctet.nic.in for more details.
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 30, 2011.
Educational Qualifications—Senior Secondary or its equivalent with at least 50% marks.
Selection Procedure—Paper I will be for a person who intends to be a teacher class I to V and Paper II will be for a person who intends to be a teacher for classes VI to VIII.
How to Apply—Application Form Fee for General/OBC candidates is Rs. 500. More information about method of application can be found at www.cbse.nic.in/www.ctet. nic.in
Log onto www.cbse.nic.in/ www.ctet.nic.in for more details.
Andhra Pradesh Teacher Eligibility Test (APTET) 2012
Andhra Pradesh Teacher Eligibility Test (APTET) 2012
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 25, 2011.
Educational Qualifications—D. Ed., B. Ed. and Language Pandit or equivalent qualification.
Selection Procedure—Paper I will have Child Development, Language I, Language II (English), Mathematics and Environmental Studies. While Paper II (class VI to VIII) will have Child Development and Pedagogy, Language I, Language II (English) Mathematics and Science or Social Studies.
How to Apply—As per the instructions given at http://aptet.cgg.gov.in
Log onto http://aptet.cgg.gov.in for more details.
Date: 09 Nov 2011
Last Date (Receipt of Application Forms)—November 25, 2011.
Educational Qualifications—D. Ed., B. Ed. and Language Pandit or equivalent qualification.
Selection Procedure—Paper I will have Child Development, Language I, Language II (English), Mathematics and Environmental Studies. While Paper II (class VI to VIII) will have Child Development and Pedagogy, Language I, Language II (English) Mathematics and Science or Social Studies.
How to Apply—As per the instructions given at http://aptet.cgg.gov.in
Log onto http://aptet.cgg.gov.in for more details.
Date: 09 Nov 2011
Reliance Capital mulling bonus, banking entry: Ambani
Mumbai, Reliance Capital could consider a bonus issue and make an entry into the banking sector even as it hopes to conclude soon a 26-percent stake sale in its life insurance arm to Japan’s Nippon Life Insurance, chairman Anil Ambani said Tuesday.
“Banking is a new growth opportunity. We will evaluate opportunities to enter this high growth sector and are keeping track of all regulatory developments on this front,” the group chairman told the annual general meeting of Reliance Capital here.
“Significant under-penetration of financial products and services in India will continue to create immense opportunity for our growth. We will expand our asset management group in emerging markets and grow our wealth management and private equity business.”
The financial power will be named Reliance Bank.
Relying to a question from the floor, he also said that the request of shareholders for a bonus issue will be sent to the company’s board, which can decide accordingly.
Ambani said in its first value-unlocking transaction, Reliance Capital had signed a definitive agreement with Nippon Life Insurance to sell 26 percent stake in Reliance Life Insurance earlier this year, subject to regulatory approvals.
The money from the proceeds — an estimated Rs.3,000 crore — will help in restructuring the company’s debt, the chairman added.
The company has also signed a pact with Nippon Life for collaboration opportunities and strategic partnerships in all Reliance Capital-promoted financial businesses earlier this month, he said.
According to him, Reliance Capital was now India’s top non-banking finance company with net worth of nearly Rs.8,000 crore, having over 20 million customers, 8,000-plus offices and a pool of over 18,000 men and women as its human capital.
“We are also pleased that the growth has been achieved in an entirely organic fashion. Our strategy is now to unlock value from all our major businesses for the benefit of our 1.3 million shareholders.”
“Banking is a new growth opportunity. We will evaluate opportunities to enter this high growth sector and are keeping track of all regulatory developments on this front,” the group chairman told the annual general meeting of Reliance Capital here.
“Significant under-penetration of financial products and services in India will continue to create immense opportunity for our growth. We will expand our asset management group in emerging markets and grow our wealth management and private equity business.”
The financial power will be named Reliance Bank.
Relying to a question from the floor, he also said that the request of shareholders for a bonus issue will be sent to the company’s board, which can decide accordingly.
Ambani said in its first value-unlocking transaction, Reliance Capital had signed a definitive agreement with Nippon Life Insurance to sell 26 percent stake in Reliance Life Insurance earlier this year, subject to regulatory approvals.
The money from the proceeds — an estimated Rs.3,000 crore — will help in restructuring the company’s debt, the chairman added.
The company has also signed a pact with Nippon Life for collaboration opportunities and strategic partnerships in all Reliance Capital-promoted financial businesses earlier this month, he said.
According to him, Reliance Capital was now India’s top non-banking finance company with net worth of nearly Rs.8,000 crore, having over 20 million customers, 8,000-plus offices and a pool of over 18,000 men and women as its human capital.
“We are also pleased that the growth has been achieved in an entirely organic fashion. Our strategy is now to unlock value from all our major businesses for the benefit of our 1.3 million shareholders.”
Hotel Management
Admissions 2011,Hospitality Courses Entrance Exam 2011
Latest Hotel Management Courses Admission Notifications India 2011 - A Guide to admissions in Hotel Mgmt. and catering techlogy courses India , Bachelor degree in Hotel & Restaurant Management, Diploma in Hotel Management Catering Technology (DHMCT), Bachelor in Hotel Management (BHM), Catering Technology & Applied Nutrition. BACHELOR DEGREE IN HOSPITALITY & HOTEL ADMINISTRAION (B.Sc in H & HA )
Hotel Management Career
Hotel, Catering and allied industry currently employ over 2.4 million people in India and an increasing number throughout the world. These industries provide varied exciting, interesting and different careers to prospective and promising enthusiasts. Continuous and constant growth and steady diversification in the industry present ample opportunities for high growth, development and executive status at an early age.
Latest Hotel Management Courses Admission Notifications India 2011 - A Guide to admissions in Hotel Mgmt. and catering techlogy courses India , Bachelor degree in Hotel & Restaurant Management, Diploma in Hotel Management Catering Technology (DHMCT), Bachelor in Hotel Management (BHM), Catering Technology & Applied Nutrition. BACHELOR DEGREE IN HOSPITALITY & HOTEL ADMINISTRAION (B.Sc in H & HA )
Hotel Management Career
Hotel, Catering and allied industry currently employ over 2.4 million people in India and an increasing number throughout the world. These industries provide varied exciting, interesting and different careers to prospective and promising enthusiasts. Continuous and constant growth and steady diversification in the industry present ample opportunities for high growth, development and executive status at an early age.
LAW ENTRANCE EXAMS
2012 (NOTIFICATION & DATES)
LAW ENTRANCE EXAM DATES - Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) Dates 2012, Delhi University Law Admission, , Punjab University LLB Entrance Exams, University of Mumbai, Pune University, IPUCET, Tamilnadu Law Admission, Kerala, Karnataka and others >> Law Entrance Exams
LAW ENTRANCE EXAM DATES - Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) Dates 2012, Delhi University Law Admission, , Punjab University LLB Entrance Exams, University of Mumbai, Pune University, IPUCET, Tamilnadu Law Admission, Kerala, Karnataka and others >> Law Entrance Exams
LAW ENTRANCE EXAMS
2012 (NOTIFICATION & DATES)
LAW ENTRANCE EXAM DATES - Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) Dates 2012, Delhi University Law Admission, , Punjab University LLB Entrance Exams, University of Mumbai, Pune University, IPUCET, Tamilnadu Law Admission, Kerala, Karnataka and others >> Law Entrance Exams
LAW ENTRANCE EXAM DATES - Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) Dates 2012, Delhi University Law Admission, , Punjab University LLB Entrance Exams, University of Mumbai, Pune University, IPUCET, Tamilnadu Law Admission, Kerala, Karnataka and others >> Law Entrance Exams
MCA ENTRANCE EXAM 2012
(NOTIFICATION & DATES)
Master in Computer Application (MCA) Entrance Test 2012 Dates - National Institute of Technology NIT MCA Entrance Test ( NIMCET ), Pune University MCA Entrance Test 2011, IIT Joint Admission Test (IIT JAM) 2011 , BITS Mesra , Thapar University MCA, JNU MCA Entrance, Maharashtra MCA CET, TANCET, Andhra Pradesh ICET, MCA Distance Education, GGS IPU CET, Manipal University MCA Admission Test, Other State Universities MCA Entrance Exams >>
Master in Computer Application (MCA) Entrance Test 2012 Dates - National Institute of Technology NIT MCA Entrance Test ( NIMCET ), Pune University MCA Entrance Test 2011, IIT Joint Admission Test (IIT JAM) 2011 , BITS Mesra , Thapar University MCA, JNU MCA Entrance, Maharashtra MCA CET, TANCET, Andhra Pradesh ICET, MCA Distance Education, GGS IPU CET, Manipal University MCA Admission Test, Other State Universities MCA Entrance Exams >>
UPSC EXAM 2012 (NOTIFICATION & DATES)
UPSC EXAM 2010-12 Dates - UPSC Civil Services Exam Dates 2012 for IAS, IPS< IFS, UPSC Combined Medical Services, UPSC Engineering Services Examination, Union Public Service Commission Combined Defence Services (CDS), National Defence Acadamy / Naval Acadamy Entrance Exams (NDA/NA) and Other UPSC Examination Schedule >> UPSC Exams 2012
PG MEDICAL ENTRANCE EXAM
2012 (NOTIFICATION & DATES)
Post Graduate Medical Entrance Test 2010 Dates - All India Post Graduate Medical/Dental Entrance Examination ( AIPGMEE ), PGI Chandigarh MD, MS Entrance Test 2010, JIPMER PG Medical Admission Test 2010 , CMC Vellore, COMEDK , Maharashtra PGMCET, Delhi University PG Entrance, CMC Vellore, PG Medical, PG Dental and Post Doctoral Entrance Exams >> PG Medical Entrance Exams
Post Graduate Medical Entrance Test 2010 Dates - All India Post Graduate Medical/Dental Entrance Examination ( AIPGMEE ), PGI Chandigarh MD, MS Entrance Test 2010, JIPMER PG Medical Admission Test 2010 , CMC Vellore, COMEDK , Maharashtra PGMCET, Delhi University PG Entrance, CMC Vellore, PG Medical, PG Dental and Post Doctoral Entrance Exams >> PG Medical Entrance Exams
MEDICAL ENTRANCE EXAM
2012 (NOTIFICATION & DATES) - MBBS
MBBS Entrance Test 2012 Dates - All India Pre Medical / Dentral Entrance Test ( CBSE AIPMT ), AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam 2011, Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC MBBS) , JIPMER MBBS Entrance Test , CMC Vellore MBBS, Manipal MBBS Admission,MGIMS Wardha MBBS, West Bengal Joint Entrance Exam (WBJEE), Karnataka Common Entrance Test (CET), Maharashtra MHT-CET, EAMCET, Orissa JEE, Punjab PMET, Delhi PMT, Kerala CEE, IPU CET, COMEDK, and other State MBBS Entrance Exams >> Medical (MBBS) Entrance Exams
MBBS Entrance Test 2012 Dates - All India Pre Medical / Dentral Entrance Test ( CBSE AIPMT ), AIIMS MBBS Entrance Exam 2011, Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC MBBS) , JIPMER MBBS Entrance Test , CMC Vellore MBBS, Manipal MBBS Admission,MGIMS Wardha MBBS, West Bengal Joint Entrance Exam (WBJEE), Karnataka Common Entrance Test (CET), Maharashtra MHT-CET, EAMCET, Orissa JEE, Punjab PMET, Delhi PMT, Kerala CEE, IPU CET, COMEDK, and other State MBBS Entrance Exams >> Medical (MBBS) Entrance Exams
ENGINEERING ENTRANCE
EXAM 2012 (NOTIFICATION & DATES)
Engineering Entrance Test 2012 Dates - All India Engineering Entrance Examination ( AIEEE ), Indian Institute of Technology Joint Entrance Exam (IITJEE), Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) , VIT University Engineering Entrance Examination (VITEEE) , Birla Institute of Technology Admission Test (BITSAT),West Bengal Joint Entrance Exam (WBJEE), Karnataka Common Entrance Test (CET), Maharashtra MHT-CET, EAMCET, CUSAT CAT , Manaipal University Engineering Entrance 2011, Orissa JEE, PTU CET, Delhi Combined Engineering Entrance Exam, Kerala CEE, IPU CET and other State Engg. Entrance Exams >> Engineering Entrance Exams
IIT Joint Entrance Exam (IIT JEE 2012) on April 8, 2012
AIEEE 2012 Notification and Dates - AIEEE 2012 on April 29, 2011 (offline). AIEEE 2012 Online from May 7 to 25
Engineering Entrance Test 2012 Dates - All India Engineering Entrance Examination ( AIEEE ), Indian Institute of Technology Joint Entrance Exam (IITJEE), Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) , VIT University Engineering Entrance Examination (VITEEE) , Birla Institute of Technology Admission Test (BITSAT),West Bengal Joint Entrance Exam (WBJEE), Karnataka Common Entrance Test (CET), Maharashtra MHT-CET, EAMCET, CUSAT CAT , Manaipal University Engineering Entrance 2011, Orissa JEE, PTU CET, Delhi Combined Engineering Entrance Exam, Kerala CEE, IPU CET and other State Engg. Entrance Exams >> Engineering Entrance Exams
IIT Joint Entrance Exam (IIT JEE 2012) on April 8, 2012
AIEEE 2012 Notification and Dates - AIEEE 2012 on April 29, 2011 (offline). AIEEE 2012 Online from May 7 to 25
MBA ENTRANCE EXAM
DATES 2012 (MANAGEMENT ENTRANCE TEST DATES )
MBA Entrance Test 2012 Dates - Common Admission Test (CAT), Management Aptitude Test (MAT), XAT (Xavier Admission Test), Symbiosis National Aptitude Test (SNAP),IIT Joint Management Entrance Test (JMET), AIMS Test for Management Admission (ATMA), Maharashtra MH MBA CET, Faculty of Management Studies (FMS) Delhi, Graduate Management Aptitude Test (GMAT), ICFAI IBSAT, Karnataka MBA Admission Test (KMAT), Tamilnadu TANCET, Andhra Pradesh ICET, State MBA CET and other Universities >> MBA Entrance Exams
MBA Entrance Test 2012 Dates - Common Admission Test (CAT), Management Aptitude Test (MAT), XAT (Xavier Admission Test), Symbiosis National Aptitude Test (SNAP),IIT Joint Management Entrance Test (JMET), AIMS Test for Management Admission (ATMA), Maharashtra MH MBA CET, Faculty of Management Studies (FMS) Delhi, Graduate Management Aptitude Test (GMAT), ICFAI IBSAT, Karnataka MBA Admission Test (KMAT), Tamilnadu TANCET, Andhra Pradesh ICET, State MBA CET and other Universities >> MBA Entrance Exams
BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICER (PO
RECRUITMENT 2011-2012
Bank Recruitment for Probationary Officers (PO) 2011 2012, Bank PO Job Alerts, Bank PO Exam Dates and Notifications
Central Bank of India (CBI) Specialist Officer recruitment 2011-2012
Common Written Examination (CWE) 2011, Common Bank PO Management Trainee Recruitment Entrance Exam
- What is Common Written Examination (CWE) ?
- Common Written Examination (CWE) Important Dates
- Common Written Examination (CWE) Participating Banks - Common Written Examination (CWE) Eligibility Criteria (Age & Educational Qualification)
- Common Written Examination (CWE) Written Examination Structure
- Pre Examination Training
- How to Apply for Common Written Examination (CWE) - Call Letters for Written Examination
Common Written Examination (CWE) 2011 for PO Recruitment Supplementary Examination on 13.11.2011
Union Bank of India Customer Relationship Executive CRE Recruitment 2011
Muthoot Finance Ltd require 2000 Probationary Officers(POs), 2011 PO recruitment
ICICI BANK Probationary Officer Programme November 2011 Batch Important Dates
State Bank of India (SBI) Associates Recruitment of 4987 Probationary Officers(POs) 2011
State Bank of India (SBI) requires 1000 Probationary Officers(POs), 2011 recruitment
Bank of India (BOI) Specialist Officer Recruitment 2011 (937 Specalist Officers jobs )
Canara Bank Recruitment 2011 Specialist Officers (Network Administrators, System Administrators, Database Administrators)
UCO Bank require 43 experienced IT Officers 2011, UCO Bank IT Officer Recruitment 2011
Central Bank of India (CBI) Recruitment of Specialist Category Officers 2011
Maharashtra Gramin Bank Recruitment of Officer Middle Management, Junior Management and Office Assistant 2011
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) Recruitment of Development Assistants and Pharmacists 2011
Corporation Bank PO Exam 2011 - Corporation Bank wants 250 Probationary Officers
Puduvai Bharathiar Grama Bank Recruitment of Assistant Managers (officer scale-1) and Office Assistant-multi purpose (Clerical cadre) 2011
Syndicate Bank Recruitment 2011 - Syndicate Bank wants 750 Asst Manager Rural Development (AMRD) in JMGS-I
Karur Vysya Bank Probationary Officers (PO) recruitment 2011
Indian Overseas Bank Probationary Officer (PO) Recruitment 2011 Bank PO - 1000 Nos
Allahabad Bank to recruit 1500 Probationary Officers, Allahabad Bank Recruitment 2011
Andhra Bank recruitment for Probationary Officers (POs) and Clerks 2011 jobs
Bank of Baroda wants 900 Probationary Officers (PO) BOB recruitment 2011
BANK CET, Common All India Entrance Test (CET) for Bank Jobs (PO & Clerical) from 2011
Dena Bank Recruitment of Specialist officers, Probationary officers and Clerks 2011
IDBI Bank requires Executives - 700 job vacancies in 2010-2011
UCO Bank require Probationary Officers, UCO Bank PO Exams
Oriental Bank Of Commerce (OBC) invites Applications for 322 Posts of Probationary Officers
Punjab and Sind Bank (PSB) Officer Recruitment 2011 440 POs
Indian Bank PO Exam 2010 2011, Indian Bank Recruitment of 850 Probationary Officers
Bank of Maharashtra Probationary Officers (PO) recruitment 2010
Punjab National Bank (PNB) require Management Trainees, Security Officer and other Managers 2010 Recruitment
United Bank of India PO recruitment Exam 2010 - United Bank of India Bank recruitment of 370 Probationary Officers
Bank of India (BOI) Probationary Officer (PO) Recruitment 2010 (2000 General Banking Officers)
State Bank of India SBI 2010 recruitment 500 Management Executives (MBA, CS, ICWA) , 60 Technical Executives (Engineers)
OBC Officer Recruitment 2010 - Oriental Bank of Commerce require 200 Officers for Marketing Insurance, Mutual Funds on Contract
Canara Bank Recruitment 2010 ( 700 Investment Officers) Imp. Dates, Application Deadlines
Syndicate Bank PO Exam 2010 - Syndicate Bank recruitment of 1000 Probationary Officers
Public Sector Banks may reintroduce Common Banking Entrance Test
Central Bank of India (CBI) recruitment of Probationary Officers 2010
Canara Bank Recruitment 2010 (500 Probationary Officers Jobs & 1500 Probationary Clerks 2010
Syndicate Bank Recruitment - Syndicate Bank wants 426 Specialist Officers
Punjab National Bank (PNB) Recruitment of Officers (IT-Banking Domain) - 227 Nos
Andhra Bank recruitment for Probationary Officers (POs) Technical and IT Officers CA Clerks jobs
NABARD to recruit 120 Asst. Managers Grade A
Allahabad Bank require Probationary Officers, Agriculture Officers, IT Officers
Saraswat Co-Op. Bank Recruitment Notice for 100 Probationary Officers - Bank PO
Federal Bank wants Probationary Officers, Clerks. Check out Important Dates and Application Deadlines
Andhra Bank requires 365 Probationary Officers (P.O.), 10 Law Officers , 75 I.T. Officers
Bank Recruitment for Probationary Officers (PO) 2011 2012, Bank PO Job Alerts, Bank PO Exam Dates and Notifications
Central Bank of India (CBI) Specialist Officer recruitment 2011-2012
Common Written Examination (CWE) 2011, Common Bank PO Management Trainee Recruitment Entrance Exam
- What is Common Written Examination (CWE) ?
- Common Written Examination (CWE) Important Dates
- Common Written Examination (CWE) Participating Banks - Common Written Examination (CWE) Eligibility Criteria (Age & Educational Qualification)
- Common Written Examination (CWE) Written Examination Structure
- Pre Examination Training
- How to Apply for Common Written Examination (CWE) - Call Letters for Written Examination
Common Written Examination (CWE) 2011 for PO Recruitment Supplementary Examination on 13.11.2011
Union Bank of India Customer Relationship Executive CRE Recruitment 2011
Muthoot Finance Ltd require 2000 Probationary Officers(POs), 2011 PO recruitment
ICICI BANK Probationary Officer Programme November 2011 Batch Important Dates
State Bank of India (SBI) Associates Recruitment of 4987 Probationary Officers(POs) 2011
State Bank of India (SBI) requires 1000 Probationary Officers(POs), 2011 recruitment
Bank of India (BOI) Specialist Officer Recruitment 2011 (937 Specalist Officers jobs )
Canara Bank Recruitment 2011 Specialist Officers (Network Administrators, System Administrators, Database Administrators)
UCO Bank require 43 experienced IT Officers 2011, UCO Bank IT Officer Recruitment 2011
Central Bank of India (CBI) Recruitment of Specialist Category Officers 2011
Maharashtra Gramin Bank Recruitment of Officer Middle Management, Junior Management and Office Assistant 2011
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) Recruitment of Development Assistants and Pharmacists 2011
Corporation Bank PO Exam 2011 - Corporation Bank wants 250 Probationary Officers
Puduvai Bharathiar Grama Bank Recruitment of Assistant Managers (officer scale-1) and Office Assistant-multi purpose (Clerical cadre) 2011
Syndicate Bank Recruitment 2011 - Syndicate Bank wants 750 Asst Manager Rural Development (AMRD) in JMGS-I
Karur Vysya Bank Probationary Officers (PO) recruitment 2011
Indian Overseas Bank Probationary Officer (PO) Recruitment 2011 Bank PO - 1000 Nos
Allahabad Bank to recruit 1500 Probationary Officers, Allahabad Bank Recruitment 2011
Andhra Bank recruitment for Probationary Officers (POs) and Clerks 2011 jobs
Bank of Baroda wants 900 Probationary Officers (PO) BOB recruitment 2011
BANK CET, Common All India Entrance Test (CET) for Bank Jobs (PO & Clerical) from 2011
Dena Bank Recruitment of Specialist officers, Probationary officers and Clerks 2011
IDBI Bank requires Executives - 700 job vacancies in 2010-2011
UCO Bank require Probationary Officers, UCO Bank PO Exams
Oriental Bank Of Commerce (OBC) invites Applications for 322 Posts of Probationary Officers
Punjab and Sind Bank (PSB) Officer Recruitment 2011 440 POs
Indian Bank PO Exam 2010 2011, Indian Bank Recruitment of 850 Probationary Officers
Bank of Maharashtra Probationary Officers (PO) recruitment 2010
Punjab National Bank (PNB) require Management Trainees, Security Officer and other Managers 2010 Recruitment
United Bank of India PO recruitment Exam 2010 - United Bank of India Bank recruitment of 370 Probationary Officers
Bank of India (BOI) Probationary Officer (PO) Recruitment 2010 (2000 General Banking Officers)
State Bank of India SBI 2010 recruitment 500 Management Executives (MBA, CS, ICWA) , 60 Technical Executives (Engineers)
OBC Officer Recruitment 2010 - Oriental Bank of Commerce require 200 Officers for Marketing Insurance, Mutual Funds on Contract
Canara Bank Recruitment 2010 ( 700 Investment Officers) Imp. Dates, Application Deadlines
Syndicate Bank PO Exam 2010 - Syndicate Bank recruitment of 1000 Probationary Officers
Public Sector Banks may reintroduce Common Banking Entrance Test
Central Bank of India (CBI) recruitment of Probationary Officers 2010
Canara Bank Recruitment 2010 (500 Probationary Officers Jobs & 1500 Probationary Clerks 2010
Syndicate Bank Recruitment - Syndicate Bank wants 426 Specialist Officers
Punjab National Bank (PNB) Recruitment of Officers (IT-Banking Domain) - 227 Nos
Andhra Bank recruitment for Probationary Officers (POs) Technical and IT Officers CA Clerks jobs
NABARD to recruit 120 Asst. Managers Grade A
Allahabad Bank require Probationary Officers, Agriculture Officers, IT Officers
Saraswat Co-Op. Bank Recruitment Notice for 100 Probationary Officers - Bank PO
Federal Bank wants Probationary Officers, Clerks. Check out Important Dates and Application Deadlines
Andhra Bank requires 365 Probationary Officers (P.O.), 10 Law Officers , 75 I.T. Officers
Entrance Exam Dates 2012
- Entrance Test India Examination Dates, CET Dates 2012, Entrance Examination Notification, College Admission Examination Dates for Indian Entrance Exam 2012 , Entrance Tests Dates in India - Engineering, Medical, MBA, Defence, Civil Service, BANK PO, Hotel Management, Law, CET, AIEEE,IIT, JEE, GATE, UPSC, SCRA, MAT, TOEFL, CAT, JEST, Management Trainee, Executive Trainee, AFMC, XAT, Exam Results and Dates
Monday 21 November 2011
IBPS/CWE Clerk Examination
Event: IBPS/CWE Clerk Examination
Dates: From: 11/17/2011 To: 11/17/2011
Details: Around nineteen Indian public sector banks have decided to conduct a common entrance test to select suitable candidates for filling existing/future vaccines in their firms. The exam will be conducted under a platform designed by IBPS, and the scores will have validity for one year from the date of result. The first IBPS exam is scheduled on September 18 2011 and applications will be accepted until August 3.
The IBPS exam is planned as a qualifying test to pre-select probationary officers and management trainees in different banking cadres. Rather than conducting separate exams bank can now track down a pool of talent and fine tune it again based on their benchmarks. IBPS scores (CWE score) will be mandatory for all upcoming recruitment in the participating banks. Final merit of the banking aspirants will be decided to the basis of CWE score, educational qualification, age, and preference in interview and group decisions. Each bank will decide the minimum score required for their intakes.
State Bank group (SBI, SBT, SBM, SBH, SBP), HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, Federal Bank, South Indian Bank, Axis Bank, Yes Bank, IDBI Bank, Kotak Mahindra and some other private sector banks are not a part of this common bank entrance test. However, we can expect the State Banks to join the league any time soon. As we pointed out before the CWE scores will have a validity for one year. That means the coming exam on September is valid throughout 2011- 2012 and candidates can apply for all vacancies in this period.
IBPS Exam pattern and syllabus:
IBPS will organize a written examination comprising Objective and Descriptive papers. Objective section carries 225 marks and should be completed in 150 minutes. The 250 questions in this section will include Verbal/Numeric Reasoning, General English, questions related to Banking/Insurance/Investment sector, Computers, and typical quantitative aptitude. The Descriptive section (60 minute) will analyze the English writing caliber of the candidate, and it carries 25 marks. We will get more details the Syllabus and question pattern after the first IBPS exam.
IBPS exam centers, participating banks, eligibility and requirements.
Any Indian national with a valid degree can appear for IBPS Exam if he or she is in the age group 20-30 as of July 2011. Reservation is available SC/ST/OBC/ handicapped contestants. The application is only accepted through the official IBPS website. Candidates should pay the Exam fees (General-450; Reserved-50 INR) through an online system or through offline net transfer at local banks. Then fill the IBPS web application form with the payment, personal and professional details, scanned copy of a recent photograph and signature. Exam call letter will be available on the same website after September 4 2011. Candidate should download and print copies of call letter and fees receipt for submitting them at the Exam centers.
Dates: From: 11/17/2011 To: 11/17/2011
Details: Around nineteen Indian public sector banks have decided to conduct a common entrance test to select suitable candidates for filling existing/future vaccines in their firms. The exam will be conducted under a platform designed by IBPS, and the scores will have validity for one year from the date of result. The first IBPS exam is scheduled on September 18 2011 and applications will be accepted until August 3.
The IBPS exam is planned as a qualifying test to pre-select probationary officers and management trainees in different banking cadres. Rather than conducting separate exams bank can now track down a pool of talent and fine tune it again based on their benchmarks. IBPS scores (CWE score) will be mandatory for all upcoming recruitment in the participating banks. Final merit of the banking aspirants will be decided to the basis of CWE score, educational qualification, age, and preference in interview and group decisions. Each bank will decide the minimum score required for their intakes.
State Bank group (SBI, SBT, SBM, SBH, SBP), HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, Federal Bank, South Indian Bank, Axis Bank, Yes Bank, IDBI Bank, Kotak Mahindra and some other private sector banks are not a part of this common bank entrance test. However, we can expect the State Banks to join the league any time soon. As we pointed out before the CWE scores will have a validity for one year. That means the coming exam on September is valid throughout 2011- 2012 and candidates can apply for all vacancies in this period.
IBPS Exam pattern and syllabus:
IBPS will organize a written examination comprising Objective and Descriptive papers. Objective section carries 225 marks and should be completed in 150 minutes. The 250 questions in this section will include Verbal/Numeric Reasoning, General English, questions related to Banking/Insurance/Investment sector, Computers, and typical quantitative aptitude. The Descriptive section (60 minute) will analyze the English writing caliber of the candidate, and it carries 25 marks. We will get more details the Syllabus and question pattern after the first IBPS exam.
IBPS exam centers, participating banks, eligibility and requirements.
Any Indian national with a valid degree can appear for IBPS Exam if he or she is in the age group 20-30 as of July 2011. Reservation is available SC/ST/OBC/ handicapped contestants. The application is only accepted through the official IBPS website. Candidates should pay the Exam fees (General-450; Reserved-50 INR) through an online system or through offline net transfer at local banks. Then fill the IBPS web application form with the payment, personal and professional details, scanned copy of a recent photograph and signature. Exam call letter will be available on the same website after September 4 2011. Candidate should download and print copies of call letter and fees receipt for submitting them at the Exam centers.
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