General Awareness
Q.1. On which one of the following ‘Head of Expenses’, the expenses of the Government of India are highest?
(1) Food subsidy
(2) Fertilizer subsidy
(3) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(4) Maintenance of national highways
(5) Oil subsidy
Q.2. Which one of the following foreign agencies will assist the municipal agencies to improve quality of municipal school through its School Excellence Programmes (SPE)?
(1) IMF
(2) UNDP
(3) UNICEF
(4) ADB
(5) None of these
Q.3. Which of the following carries out ‘Open Market Operations?
(1) Financial Ministry
(2) External Affairs Ministry
(3) Reserve Bank of India
(4) Planning Commission
(5) Ministry of Commerce
Q.4. Who among the following Minister will hold telecom portfolio in addition to his own portfolio till next reallotment?
(1) Kamal Nath
(2) Kapil Sibal
(3) Pranab Mukherjee
(4) Mamta Banerjee
(5) None of these
Q.5. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, the RBI issues directives to the Banks in India?
(1) RBI Act
(2) Banking Regulation Act
(3) Essential Commodities Act
(4) RBI and Banking Regulation Act
(5) None of these
Q.6. Which one of the following tools is used by RBI for selective credit control?
(1) It advises banks to lend against certain commodities
(2) It advises bank to recall the loans for advances against certain commodities
(3) It advises banks to charge higher rate of interest for advance against certain commodities
(4) It discourages certain kinds of lending by assigning higher risk weights to loans it deems undesirable
( 5) None of these
Q.7. For which one of the following Loan Products ‘teaser loans’ are offered by Banks?
(1) Education Loans
(2) Commercial Loans
(3) Loans against security of gold
(4) Retail Trade Loans
(5) Home Loans
Q.8. The Commonwealth Games 2010 were held in Delhi from October 3 to 14, 2010. Who amongst the following picked up the Game’s first gold medal?
(1) Augustina Nwaokolo
(2) Ravinder Singh
(3) Azhar Hussain
(4) Carol Huynh
(5) None of these
Q.9. In which one of the following cities was the recent meet of G-20 Countries organised?
(1) Tokyo
(2) Seoul
(3) London
(4) Beijing
(5) Singapore
Q.10. As per recent newspaper reports, which one of the following countries (among the given) has highest literacy rate?
(1) India
(2) Sri Lanka
(3) China
(4) Vietnam
(5) Bangladesh
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Wednesday 7 December 2011
English Language
English Language
Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word / phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
Q.1. The actress, who was in the city for the press conference of her dance reality show, says the chose the show because of her passionate for dance.
(1) begin passion in dance
(2) passionate for dancing
(3) being passionate in dancing
(4) passion of dance
(5) No correction required
Q.2. Despite of several representations and reminders, the district administration had not taken any action to stem the systematic encroachment of water bodies.
(1) Because of
(2) Despite
(3) Although
(4) Inspite
(5) No correction required
Q.3. While it is well-known that there are large-scale leakages from the public distribution system across the country, there are many states which have manage successful reform the public distribution system and deliver food grain to the poor.
(1) managed to successfully reform
(2) managed successful reforms
(3) managing successfully to reform
(4) managed for successfully reforming
(5) No correction required
Q.4. The four-day workshop is being conducted for gear up administration to the changes that will follow with the implementation of the Right to Compulsory and Free Education Act 2009.
(1) so geared up
(2) to gear up
(3) for geared up
(4) to gearing up
(5) No correction required
Q.5. The court refused to provide relieve to the petitioner and stated that plying of all diesel vehicles was banned with immediate effect.
(1) provision of relief
(2) providing of relieve
(3) provide any relief
(4) provide relieving
(5) No correction required
Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Building of these structures requires a lot of fuel to be burnt which emits a large amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
(B) The major source of carbon dioxide is power plants.
(C) Another twenty percent of carbon dioxide emitted in the atmosphere comes from burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
(D) Buildings, both commercial and residential represent in the atmosphere comes from burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
(E) The major cause of global warming is the emission of green house gases like carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide etc. into the atmosphere.
(F) These power plants emit large amounts of carbon dioxide produced from burning of fossil fuels for the purpose of electricity generation.
Q.6. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B (5) A
Q.7. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D (5) F
Q.8. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.9. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.10. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B
(5) A
Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word / phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
Q.1. The actress, who was in the city for the press conference of her dance reality show, says the chose the show because of her passionate for dance.
(1) begin passion in dance
(2) passionate for dancing
(3) being passionate in dancing
(4) passion of dance
(5) No correction required
Q.2. Despite of several representations and reminders, the district administration had not taken any action to stem the systematic encroachment of water bodies.
(1) Because of
(2) Despite
(3) Although
(4) Inspite
(5) No correction required
Q.3. While it is well-known that there are large-scale leakages from the public distribution system across the country, there are many states which have manage successful reform the public distribution system and deliver food grain to the poor.
(1) managed to successfully reform
(2) managed successful reforms
(3) managing successfully to reform
(4) managed for successfully reforming
(5) No correction required
Q.4. The four-day workshop is being conducted for gear up administration to the changes that will follow with the implementation of the Right to Compulsory and Free Education Act 2009.
(1) so geared up
(2) to gear up
(3) for geared up
(4) to gearing up
(5) No correction required
Q.5. The court refused to provide relieve to the petitioner and stated that plying of all diesel vehicles was banned with immediate effect.
(1) provision of relief
(2) providing of relieve
(3) provide any relief
(4) provide relieving
(5) No correction required
Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Building of these structures requires a lot of fuel to be burnt which emits a large amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
(B) The major source of carbon dioxide is power plants.
(C) Another twenty percent of carbon dioxide emitted in the atmosphere comes from burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
(D) Buildings, both commercial and residential represent in the atmosphere comes from burning of gasoline in the engines of vehicles.
(E) The major cause of global warming is the emission of green house gases like carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide etc. into the atmosphere.
(F) These power plants emit large amounts of carbon dioxide produced from burning of fossil fuels for the purpose of electricity generation.
Q.6. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B (5) A
Q.7. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D (5) F
Q.8. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.9. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.10. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) B
(5) A
Reasoning Ability & Computer Competency
Reasoning Ability & Computer Competency
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who face the centre sits third to the right of V. T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of P.
Q.1. Who sits second to the left of Q ?
(1) V
(2) P
(3) T
(4) Y
(5) Cannot be determined
Q.2. What is the position of T with respect to V ?
(1) Fourth to the left
(2) Second to the left
(3) Third to the left
(4) Third to the right
(5) Second to the right
Q.3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the does not belong to that group ?
(1) R
(2) W
(3) V
(4) S
(5) Y
Q.4. Which of the following will come in place the question mark based upon the given seating arrangement ? WP TR QW RS ?
(1) YT
(2) VY
(3) VQ
(4) PY
(5) QV
Q.5. Which of the following is true regarding R ?
(1) R is an immediate neighbour of V
(2) R faces the centre
(3) R sits exactly between T and S
(4) Q sits third to left of R
(5) None is true
In a certain code ‘a friend of mine’ is written as ‘4 9 1 6’ ‘ mine lots of metal’ is written as ‘3 1 0 9’ and ‘a piece of metal’ is written as ‘7 1 6 3’.
Q.6. What is the code for ‘piece’ ?
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) 7
(5) cannot be determined
Q.7. What does ’9’ stand for ?
(1) of
(2) mine
(3) friend
(4) lots
(5) metal
Q.8. Which of the following may represent ‘a pleasure of mine ?
(1) 6 3 0 9
(2) 5 2 1 6
(3) 9 2 1 6
(4) 3 6 9 4
(5) 5 0 4 1
Q.9. What does ’O’ stand for ?
(1) mine
(2) metal
(3) of
(4) lots
(5) a
Q.10. ‘8 7 3’ would mean —
(1) a metal piece
(2) metal for friend
(3) piece of advise
(4) friend of mine
(5) large metal piece
Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.
P who face the centre sits third to the right of V. T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbour of P.
Q.1. Who sits second to the left of Q ?
(1) V
(2) P
(3) T
(4) Y
(5) Cannot be determined
Q.2. What is the position of T with respect to V ?
(1) Fourth to the left
(2) Second to the left
(3) Third to the left
(4) Third to the right
(5) Second to the right
Q.3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the does not belong to that group ?
(1) R
(2) W
(3) V
(4) S
(5) Y
Q.4. Which of the following will come in place the question mark based upon the given seating arrangement ? WP TR QW RS ?
(1) YT
(2) VY
(3) VQ
(4) PY
(5) QV
Q.5. Which of the following is true regarding R ?
(1) R is an immediate neighbour of V
(2) R faces the centre
(3) R sits exactly between T and S
(4) Q sits third to left of R
(5) None is true
In a certain code ‘a friend of mine’ is written as ‘4 9 1 6’ ‘ mine lots of metal’ is written as ‘3 1 0 9’ and ‘a piece of metal’ is written as ‘7 1 6 3’.
Q.6. What is the code for ‘piece’ ?
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) 7
(5) cannot be determined
Q.7. What does ’9’ stand for ?
(1) of
(2) mine
(3) friend
(4) lots
(5) metal
Q.8. Which of the following may represent ‘a pleasure of mine ?
(1) 6 3 0 9
(2) 5 2 1 6
(3) 9 2 1 6
(4) 3 6 9 4
(5) 5 0 4 1
Q.9. What does ’O’ stand for ?
(1) mine
(2) metal
(3) of
(4) lots
(5) a
Q.10. ‘8 7 3’ would mean —
(1) a metal piece
(2) metal for friend
(3) piece of advise
(4) friend of mine
(5) large metal piece
Quantitative Aptitude
Quantitative Aptitude
1. 15 21 39 77 143 (?)
(1) 243
(2) 240
(3) 253
(4) 245
(5) None of these
2. 33 39 57 87 129 (?)
(1) 183
(2) 177
(3) 189
(4) 199
(5) None of these
3. 15 19 83 119 631 (?)
(1) 731
(2) 693
(3) 712
(4) 683
(5) None of these
4. 19 26 40 68 124 (?)
(1) 246
(2) 238
(3) 236
(4) 256
(5) None of these
5. 43 69 58 84 73 (?)
(1) 62
(2) 98
(3) 109
(4) 63
(5) None of these
6. The respective ratio between the present ages of Ram and Rakesh is 6 : 11. Four years ago the ratio of their ages was 1 : 2 respectively. What will be Rakesh’s age after five years?
(1) 45 years
(2) 29 years
(3) 49 years
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
7. The circumference of two circles is 88 metres and 220 metres respectively. What is the difference between the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle?
(1) 3422 sq.mtrs.
(2) 3242 sq.mtrs.
(3) 3244 sq.mtrs.
(4) 3424 sq.mtrs.
(5) None of these
8. Pradeep invested 20% more than Mohit. Mohit invested 10% less than Raghu. If the total sum of their investment is Rs. 17,880/-, how much amount did Raghu invest?
(1) Rs. 6,000/-
(2) Rs. 8,000/-
(3) Rs. 7,000/-
(4) Rs. 5,000/-
(5) None of these
9. Average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh is 63. Rahul’s score is 15 less than Ajay and 10 more than Manish. If Ajay scored 30 marks more than the average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh, what is the sum of Manish’s and Suresh’s scores?
(1) 120
(2) 111
(3) 117
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
10. Fifty three percent of a number is 358 less than the square of 26. What is the value of three-fourth of 23 percent of that number?
(1) 101
(2) 109.5
(3) 113
(4) 103.5
(5) None of these
1. 15 21 39 77 143 (?)
(1) 243
(2) 240
(3) 253
(4) 245
(5) None of these
2. 33 39 57 87 129 (?)
(1) 183
(2) 177
(3) 189
(4) 199
(5) None of these
3. 15 19 83 119 631 (?)
(1) 731
(2) 693
(3) 712
(4) 683
(5) None of these
4. 19 26 40 68 124 (?)
(1) 246
(2) 238
(3) 236
(4) 256
(5) None of these
5. 43 69 58 84 73 (?)
(1) 62
(2) 98
(3) 109
(4) 63
(5) None of these
6. The respective ratio between the present ages of Ram and Rakesh is 6 : 11. Four years ago the ratio of their ages was 1 : 2 respectively. What will be Rakesh’s age after five years?
(1) 45 years
(2) 29 years
(3) 49 years
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
7. The circumference of two circles is 88 metres and 220 metres respectively. What is the difference between the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle?
(1) 3422 sq.mtrs.
(2) 3242 sq.mtrs.
(3) 3244 sq.mtrs.
(4) 3424 sq.mtrs.
(5) None of these
8. Pradeep invested 20% more than Mohit. Mohit invested 10% less than Raghu. If the total sum of their investment is Rs. 17,880/-, how much amount did Raghu invest?
(1) Rs. 6,000/-
(2) Rs. 8,000/-
(3) Rs. 7,000/-
(4) Rs. 5,000/-
(5) None of these
9. Average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh is 63. Rahul’s score is 15 less than Ajay and 10 more than Manish. If Ajay scored 30 marks more than the average score of Rahul, Manish and Suresh, what is the sum of Manish’s and Suresh’s scores?
(1) 120
(2) 111
(3) 117
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
10. Fifty three percent of a number is 358 less than the square of 26. What is the value of three-fourth of 23 percent of that number?
(1) 101
(2) 109.5
(3) 113
(4) 103.5
(5) None of these
General Awareness
General Awareness
Q.1. As per the decision taken by the govt. of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended to all the districts of India. This means it will now be applicable to about —
(1) 200 districts
(2) 300 districts
(3) 400 districts
(4) 500 districts
(5) 600 districts
Q.2. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana ?
(1) Rs. 10,000/-
(2) Rs. 20,000/-
(3) Rs. 30,000/-
(4) Rs. 40,000/-
(5) Rs. 50,000/-
Q.3. Which of the following banks has taken over the centurion Bank of Panjab ?
(1) ICICI Bank
(2) IDBI Bank
(3) HDFC Bank
(4) AXIS Bank
(5) None of these
Q.4. Unique Identification Authority of India will set up data base for —
(1) Identity and biometrics details of Indian residents
(2) Identity and biometrics details of Indian citizens
(3) Identity and biometrics details of person’s residents in India or visiting India
(4) All the above
(5) None of these
Q.5. The biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country is —
(1) Iron & steel plants
(2) Roadways
(3) Railways
(4) Airways
(5) None of these
Q.6. Which of the following is Horticulture Crop?
(1) Paddy
(2) Wheat
(3) Mango
(4) Bajara
(5) None of these
Q.7. Which of the following nation is considered the originator of the concept of micro Finance ?
(1) India
(2) Bangladesh
(3) South Africa
(4) USA
(5) None of these
Q.8. Very often we read in news papers about 3G or 3rd Generation technology. This is a set of standards used for which of the following purposes ?
(1) To combat climatic changes
(2) Production of Nuclear Energy
(3) Film Production
(4) Mobile Telecommunications
(5) All of these
Q.9. What is the full form of ‘ULIP’, the term which was the news recently ?
(1) Universal Life & Investment Plan
(2) Unit Loan & Insurance Plan
(3) Universal Loan & Investment Plan
(4) Uniformly Loaded Investment Plan
(5) Unit Linked Insurance Plan
Q.10. The main function of I. M. F. is to —
(1) Finance Investment loans to developing countries
(2) Act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank
(3) Help to solve balance of payment problems of member countries
(4) Arrange international deposits from banks
(5) None of these
Q.1. As per the decision taken by the govt. of India now the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is extended to all the districts of India. This means it will now be applicable to about —
(1) 200 districts
(2) 300 districts
(3) 400 districts
(4) 500 districts
(5) 600 districts
Q.2. Which of the following is the amount of insurance cover provided to the workers of the unorganized sector under Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana ?
(1) Rs. 10,000/-
(2) Rs. 20,000/-
(3) Rs. 30,000/-
(4) Rs. 40,000/-
(5) Rs. 50,000/-
Q.3. Which of the following banks has taken over the centurion Bank of Panjab ?
(1) ICICI Bank
(2) IDBI Bank
(3) HDFC Bank
(4) AXIS Bank
(5) None of these
Q.4. Unique Identification Authority of India will set up data base for —
(1) Identity and biometrics details of Indian residents
(2) Identity and biometrics details of Indian citizens
(3) Identity and biometrics details of person’s residents in India or visiting India
(4) All the above
(5) None of these
Q.5. The biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country is —
(1) Iron & steel plants
(2) Roadways
(3) Railways
(4) Airways
(5) None of these
Q.6. Which of the following is Horticulture Crop?
(1) Paddy
(2) Wheat
(3) Mango
(4) Bajara
(5) None of these
Q.7. Which of the following nation is considered the originator of the concept of micro Finance ?
(1) India
(2) Bangladesh
(3) South Africa
(4) USA
(5) None of these
Q.8. Very often we read in news papers about 3G or 3rd Generation technology. This is a set of standards used for which of the following purposes ?
(1) To combat climatic changes
(2) Production of Nuclear Energy
(3) Film Production
(4) Mobile Telecommunications
(5) All of these
Q.9. What is the full form of ‘ULIP’, the term which was the news recently ?
(1) Universal Life & Investment Plan
(2) Unit Loan & Insurance Plan
(3) Universal Loan & Investment Plan
(4) Uniformly Loaded Investment Plan
(5) Unit Linked Insurance Plan
Q.10. The main function of I. M. F. is to —
(1) Finance Investment loans to developing countries
(2) Act as a private sector lending arm of the World Bank
(3) Help to solve balance of payment problems of member countries
(4) Arrange international deposits from banks
(5) None of these
English Language
English Language
Q.1-5. Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the paper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into books”,
(C) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticed my noticing her.
(D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.
Q.1, Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.2, Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.3, Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.4, Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.5, Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.6-10. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came (206) effects in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just (207) the corner, it is fast becoming clear that (208) well-intentioned ideas into (209) will take some doing. For a start, the guidelines for admission under the RTE prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student profiling The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that school will have to resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure (210) will only incentivise manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.
The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to education are all very well, (211) we have the infrastructure in place first Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the (212) way around. In that sense legislaors’ assessment of ground realities is (213) target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of low-cost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down (214) on private schools failing to conform to abstract bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education should focus on upgrading and expanding the exisiting government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can we ensure the much- eeded supply-demand (215) in the education sector.
Q.6. (1) with
(2) for
(3) on
(4) into
(5) in
Q.7. (1) around
(2) near
(3) into
(4) about
(5) reaching
Q.8. (1) forming
(2) translating
(3) having
(4) taking
(5) framing
Q.9. (1) affect
(2) ideas
(3) practice
(4) concept
(5) procedure
Q.10. (1) benefit
(2) merit
(3) chance
(4) basis
(5) method
Q.1-5. Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the paper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into books”,
(C) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticed my noticing her.
(D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.
Q.1, Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.2, Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.3, Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.4, Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.5, Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.6-10. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came (206) effects in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just (207) the corner, it is fast becoming clear that (208) well-intentioned ideas into (209) will take some doing. For a start, the guidelines for admission under the RTE prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student profiling The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that school will have to resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure (210) will only incentivise manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.
The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to education are all very well, (211) we have the infrastructure in place first Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the (212) way around. In that sense legislaors’ assessment of ground realities is (213) target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of low-cost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down (214) on private schools failing to conform to abstract bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education should focus on upgrading and expanding the exisiting government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can we ensure the much- eeded supply-demand (215) in the education sector.
Q.6. (1) with
(2) for
(3) on
(4) into
(5) in
Q.7. (1) around
(2) near
(3) into
(4) about
(5) reaching
Q.8. (1) forming
(2) translating
(3) having
(4) taking
(5) framing
Q.9. (1) affect
(2) ideas
(3) practice
(4) concept
(5) procedure
Q.10. (1) benefit
(2) merit
(3) chance
(4) basis
(5) method
English Language
English Language
Q.1-5. Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the paper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into books”,
(C) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticed my noticing her.
(D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.
Q.1, Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.2, Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.3, Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.4, Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.5, Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.6-10. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came (206) effects in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just (207) the corner, it is fast becoming clear that (208) well-intentioned ideas into (209) will take some doing. For a start, the guidelines for admission under the RTE prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student profiling The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that school will have to resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure (210) will only incentivise manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.
The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to education are all very well, (211) we have the infrastructure in place first Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the (212) way around. In that sense legislaors’ assessment of ground realities is (213) target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of low-cost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down (214) on private schools failing to conform to abstract bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education should focus on upgrading and expanding the exisiting government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can we ensure the much- eeded supply-demand (215) in the education sector.
Q.6. (1) with
(2) for
(3) on
(4) into
(5) in
Q.7. (1) around
(2) near
(3) into
(4) about
(5) reaching
Q.8. (1) forming
(2) translating
(3) having
(4) taking
(5) framing
Q.9. (1) affect
(2) ideas
(3) practice
(4) concept
(5) procedure
Q.10. (1) benefit
(2) merit
(3) chance
(4) basis
(5) method
Q.1-5. Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the paper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into books”,
(C) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticed my noticing her.
(D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.
Q.1, Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.2, Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.3, Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.4, Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.5, Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
Q.6-10. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which came (206) effects in April this year, is meant to transform the education sector and take India closer to the goal of universal schooling. But with admissions to the new academic session just (207) the corner, it is fast becoming clear that (208) well-intentioned ideas into (209) will take some doing. For a start, the guidelines for admission under the RTE prohibit schools from conducting any sort of student profiling The stress on a random yet justifiable admission process means that school will have to resort to something as quirky as a lottery system. However, leaving admission to a good school to pure (210) will only incentivise manipulations, defeating the very essence of RTE.
The main problem facing the education sector is that of a resource sector is that of a resource crunch. The provisions for ensuring universal access to education are all very well, (211) we have the infrastructure in place first Brick and mortar schools need to precede open admission and not the (212) way around. In that sense legislaors’ assessment of ground realities is (213) target when they endorse the closure of tens of thousands of low-cost private schools for not meeting the minimum standards of land plot, building specifications and playground area as laid out in the RTE Act. Instead of bearing down (214) on private schools failing to conform to abstract bureaucratic criteria, efforts to bring about universal education should focus on upgrading and expanding the exisiting government school infrastructure to accommodate all. Only then can we ensure the much- eeded supply-demand (215) in the education sector.
Q.6. (1) with
(2) for
(3) on
(4) into
(5) in
Q.7. (1) around
(2) near
(3) into
(4) about
(5) reaching
Q.8. (1) forming
(2) translating
(3) having
(4) taking
(5) framing
Q.9. (1) affect
(2) ideas
(3) practice
(4) concept
(5) procedure
Q.10. (1) benefit
(2) merit
(3) chance
(4) basis
(5) method
Reasoning
Reasoning
1. How many such pairs of letter are there in the word FREQUENT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between in the English alphabetical series?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
2. In a class of 35 children, Ameya’s rank sixth from the top. Annie is seven ranks below Amerya. What is Annie’s rank for the bottom?
(1) 22
(2) 20
(3) 19
(4) 23
(5) Cannot be determined
3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Lens
(2) Shutter
(3) Film
(4) Camera
(5) Zoom
4. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series? AB BE DH ? KQ
(1) HL
(2) GL
(3) GK
(4) EI
(5) IM
5. If two is subtracted from each odd digit and if two is added to each even digit in the number 9275436, what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and second from the left of the new number thus formed?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 1
(5) 5
6. The position of how many alphabets will remain unchanged if each of the alphabets in the word FORGET is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
7. Which of the following groups of alphabets should replace the blank space so that the group of alphabets, given in bold, follow a logical pattern from the preceding and the following group of alphabets?
a b _ y
a b c _ x w
a b c d e v _
(1) z, d, u
(2) d, x, u
(3) c, d, u
(4) z, y, w
(5) c, d, w
8. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘P < F’ be definitely false?
(1) F = B > P M
(2) P > B M = F
(3) P B < F M
(4) B < P M < F
(5) None of these
If ‘A × B’ means A is the son of B.
If ‘A + B’ means A is the father of B.
If ‘A > B’ means A is the daughter of B.
If ‘A < B’ means A is the wife of B.
9. Which of the following pairs of people represent first cousins with regard to the relations given in the expressions, if it is provided that A is the sister of J: ‘L > V < J + P’ and ‘S × A < D + F < E + K’
(1) LP
(2) SP
(3) SK
(4) SF
(5) cannot be determined
10. What will come in the place of the question mark, if it is provided that M is the grandmother of F in the expression: ‘F × R < S ? M’
(1) >
(2) <
(3) +
(4) ×
(5) cannot be determined
1. How many such pairs of letter are there in the word FREQUENT, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between in the English alphabetical series?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
2. In a class of 35 children, Ameya’s rank sixth from the top. Annie is seven ranks below Amerya. What is Annie’s rank for the bottom?
(1) 22
(2) 20
(3) 19
(4) 23
(5) Cannot be determined
3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Lens
(2) Shutter
(3) Film
(4) Camera
(5) Zoom
4. What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series? AB BE DH ? KQ
(1) HL
(2) GL
(3) GK
(4) EI
(5) IM
5. If two is subtracted from each odd digit and if two is added to each even digit in the number 9275436, what will be the difference between the digits which are third from the right and second from the left of the new number thus formed?
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 1
(5) 5
6. The position of how many alphabets will remain unchanged if each of the alphabets in the word FORGET is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) More than three
7. Which of the following groups of alphabets should replace the blank space so that the group of alphabets, given in bold, follow a logical pattern from the preceding and the following group of alphabets?
a b _ y
a b c _ x w
a b c d e v _
(1) z, d, u
(2) d, x, u
(3) c, d, u
(4) z, y, w
(5) c, d, w
8. In which of the following expressions will the expression ‘P < F’ be definitely false?
(1) F = B > P M
(2) P > B M = F
(3) P B < F M
(4) B < P M < F
(5) None of these
If ‘A × B’ means A is the son of B.
If ‘A + B’ means A is the father of B.
If ‘A > B’ means A is the daughter of B.
If ‘A < B’ means A is the wife of B.
9. Which of the following pairs of people represent first cousins with regard to the relations given in the expressions, if it is provided that A is the sister of J: ‘L > V < J + P’ and ‘S × A < D + F < E + K’
(1) LP
(2) SP
(3) SK
(4) SF
(5) cannot be determined
10. What will come in the place of the question mark, if it is provided that M is the grandmother of F in the expression: ‘F × R < S ? M’
(1) >
(2) <
(3) +
(4) ×
(5) cannot be determined
Quantitative Aptitude
Quantitative Aptitude
1. 117 389 593 627 (?)
(1) 654
(2) 640
(3) 634
(4) 630
(5) None of these
2. 7 21 23 51 103 (?)
(1) 186
(2) 188
(3) 185
(4) 187
(5) None of these
3. 18 27 49 84 132 (?)
(1) 190
(2) 183
(3) 180
(4) 193
(5) None of these
4. 33 43 65 99 145 (?)
(1) 201
(2) 203
(3) 205
(4) 211
(5) None of these
5. 655 439 314 250 223 (?)
(1) 205
(2) 210
(3) 195
(4) 190
(5) None of these
6. Veena’s monthly income is equal to the cost of 34 kg of nuts. Cost of 10 kg of nuts is equal to the cost of 20 kgs of apples. If cost of 12 kg of apples is Rs. 1500/-. What is Veena’s annual salary? (At some places annual income and in some place monthly income is given)
(1) Rs. 1 lac 20 thousand
(2) Rs. 1 lac 2 thousand
(3) Rs. 2 lac 20 thousand
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
7. Rohit has some 50 paisa coins, some 2 rupees coins, some 1 rupee and some 5 rupee coins. The value of all of coins is Rs. 50/-. Number of 2 rupee coin is 5 more than the 5 rupee coins. 50 paisa coins are double in number than 1 rupee coin. Value of 50 paisa coins and 1 rupee coins is Rs. 28/-. How many 2 rupee coins does he have?
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 7
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
8. Puneet scored 175 marks in a test and failed by 35 marks. If the passing percentage of the test is 35 percent, what are the maximum marks of the test?
(1) 650
(2) 700
(3) 750
(4) 600
(5) None of these
9. The length of a rectangle is twice the diameter of a circle. The circumference of the circle is equal to the area of a square of side 22 cm. What is the breadth of the rectangle if its perimeter is 668 cm?
(1) 24 cm
(2) 26 cm
(3) 52 cm
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
10. 4 girls can do a piece of work in 8 days, 3 boys can do the same piece of work in 9 days, 7 men do the same piece of work in 2 days and 5 women can do the same piece of work in 4 days. Who is least efficient?
(1) Boys
(2) Girls
(3) Women
(4) Men
(5) Boys and men both
1. 117 389 593 627 (?)
(1) 654
(2) 640
(3) 634
(4) 630
(5) None of these
2. 7 21 23 51 103 (?)
(1) 186
(2) 188
(3) 185
(4) 187
(5) None of these
3. 18 27 49 84 132 (?)
(1) 190
(2) 183
(3) 180
(4) 193
(5) None of these
4. 33 43 65 99 145 (?)
(1) 201
(2) 203
(3) 205
(4) 211
(5) None of these
5. 655 439 314 250 223 (?)
(1) 205
(2) 210
(3) 195
(4) 190
(5) None of these
6. Veena’s monthly income is equal to the cost of 34 kg of nuts. Cost of 10 kg of nuts is equal to the cost of 20 kgs of apples. If cost of 12 kg of apples is Rs. 1500/-. What is Veena’s annual salary? (At some places annual income and in some place monthly income is given)
(1) Rs. 1 lac 20 thousand
(2) Rs. 1 lac 2 thousand
(3) Rs. 2 lac 20 thousand
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
7. Rohit has some 50 paisa coins, some 2 rupees coins, some 1 rupee and some 5 rupee coins. The value of all of coins is Rs. 50/-. Number of 2 rupee coin is 5 more than the 5 rupee coins. 50 paisa coins are double in number than 1 rupee coin. Value of 50 paisa coins and 1 rupee coins is Rs. 28/-. How many 2 rupee coins does he have?
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 7
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
8. Puneet scored 175 marks in a test and failed by 35 marks. If the passing percentage of the test is 35 percent, what are the maximum marks of the test?
(1) 650
(2) 700
(3) 750
(4) 600
(5) None of these
9. The length of a rectangle is twice the diameter of a circle. The circumference of the circle is equal to the area of a square of side 22 cm. What is the breadth of the rectangle if its perimeter is 668 cm?
(1) 24 cm
(2) 26 cm
(3) 52 cm
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
10. 4 girls can do a piece of work in 8 days, 3 boys can do the same piece of work in 9 days, 7 men do the same piece of work in 2 days and 5 women can do the same piece of work in 4 days. Who is least efficient?
(1) Boys
(2) Girls
(3) Women
(4) Men
(5) Boys and men both
General Awareness
General Awareness
1. The eleventh ‘five year plan’ of India is for the five years ranging from—
(1) 2009-2014
(2) 2008-2013
(3) 2007-2012
(4) 2006-2011
(5) None of these
2. DSCR indicates the ability of a company to—
(1) meet its current liabilities
(2) service its shareholders
(3) meet its long term debt obligations
(4) raise further capital
(5) None of these
3. Ah IPO is—
(1) initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders
(2) an offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the time to the public
(3) used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(4) a book building process
(5) None of these
4. A decreasing current ratio indicates—
(1) a stable liquidity
(2) an increasing liquidity
(3) a strained liquidity
(4) satisfactory current solvency
(5) none of these
5. Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on—
(1) the age of the company
(2) the location of the company
(3) the activity undertaken by the company
(4) the credibility and the valuation of the company
(5) the existing profitability of the company
6. The synagogue is generally—
(1) an epic
(2) a religion
(3) Jewish House of Prayer
(4) the Parsi temple
(5) a palace
7. Deuce is a term used in—
(1) Polo
(2) lawn tennis
(3) badminton
(4) boxing
(5) volleyball
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, e
(4) a, b, e
(5) b, c, e
8. ISI the intelligence agency of—
(1) United Kingdom
(2) Unites States of America
(3) Israel
(4) Pakistan
(5) India
9. Air Traffic Controller’s jobs involves—
(1) control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
(2) control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and control centres
(3) following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
(4) control of commercial airline flights according to government regulations
(5) to authorize and regulate commercial airline flights
(1) (1), (2)
(2) (2), (3)
(3) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(4) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
(5) (3), (4), (5)
10. Animal assisted therapy is employed in—
(1) Operations
(2) ICU
(3) old age homes
(4) training animals
(5) natural healing
1. The eleventh ‘five year plan’ of India is for the five years ranging from—
(1) 2009-2014
(2) 2008-2013
(3) 2007-2012
(4) 2006-2011
(5) None of these
2. DSCR indicates the ability of a company to—
(1) meet its current liabilities
(2) service its shareholders
(3) meet its long term debt obligations
(4) raise further capital
(5) None of these
3. Ah IPO is—
(1) initial price offered by a private limited company to its shareholders
(2) an offer by an unlisted company for sale of its shares for the time to the public
(3) used to increase the share capital of an unlisted company
(4) a book building process
(5) None of these
4. A decreasing current ratio indicates—
(1) a stable liquidity
(2) an increasing liquidity
(3) a strained liquidity
(4) satisfactory current solvency
(5) none of these
5. Private equity investors, invest in a company based mainly on—
(1) the age of the company
(2) the location of the company
(3) the activity undertaken by the company
(4) the credibility and the valuation of the company
(5) the existing profitability of the company
6. The synagogue is generally—
(1) an epic
(2) a religion
(3) Jewish House of Prayer
(4) the Parsi temple
(5) a palace
7. Deuce is a term used in—
(1) Polo
(2) lawn tennis
(3) badminton
(4) boxing
(5) volleyball
(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, e
(4) a, b, e
(5) b, c, e
8. ISI the intelligence agency of—
(1) United Kingdom
(2) Unites States of America
(3) Israel
(4) Pakistan
(5) India
9. Air Traffic Controller’s jobs involves—
(1) control of air traffic in and within vicinity of airport
(2) control of movement of air traffic between altitude, sectors and control centres
(3) following established procedures and policies for air traffic control
(4) control of commercial airline flights according to government regulations
(5) to authorize and regulate commercial airline flights
(1) (1), (2)
(2) (2), (3)
(3) (1), (2), (3), (4)
(4) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5)
(5) (3), (4), (5)
10. Animal assisted therapy is employed in—
(1) Operations
(2) ICU
(3) old age homes
(4) training animals
(5) natural healing
English Language
English Language
Read the following interview and answer the given questions based on that. Some words have been printed in bold to help you locate them white answering some of the questions.
A pioneering new book, Gender and Green Governance, explores a central question: If women adequate representation of forestry institution, would make a difference to them the communities and forests as a national resource? Interview with the author. Why has access to forests been such a conflictridden issue?
This is not surprising. Forests constitute not just community and national wealth, but global wealth. But for millions, forests are also critical for livelihoods and their daily lives. Your first book, Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes (1986), was about forest. Is there an evolution of argument here?
Yes indeed. In Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes, I had argued that social forestry, with its-down implementation and focus on commercial species, was neither ‘social’ nor ‘forestry’, and would protect neither forests nor village livelihoods. The answer, I argues, lay in allowing forest communities to mange local forests. Finally, in 1990, India launched the joint forest management programme and Nepal also started community forestry. So I decided to see for myself how community forestry was actually doing.
Between 1995 and 1999, I travelled extensively across India and Nepal and found a paradox. Forests were indeed becoming greener but women’s problem of firewood shortages persisted and in many cases had become more acute. Also, despite their high stakes in forest, women continued to be largely excluded from forest management. I coined the term “participatory exclusions” to describe this. However, the current book is less about women’s exclusion. I ask: What if women were present in forest governance? What difference would that make? But has this question not been raised before? Economists researching environment collective action have paid little attention to gender. Scholars from other disciplines focusing on gender and governance have been concerned mainly with women’s near absence from governance institutions. The presumption is that once women are present all good things will follow. But can we assume this? No. Rural women relationship with forest is complex. On the one hand, their everyday dependence on forests for firewood, fodder, etc, creates a strong stake in conversation. On the other, the same dependence can compel them to extract heavily from forest. As one landless women told me: “Of course, it hurts me to cut a green branch but what do I do if my children are hungry?” Taking an agnostic position, I decide to test varied propositions, controlling for otherfactors.
What did you find? First, women’s greater presence enhance enhances their effective voice in decision-making. And there is a critical mass effect: If forest management groups have 25-33 per cent female members in their executive committees it significantly increases the likelihood of women makes a particular difference. When present in sufficient number they are more likely to attend meetings and voice their concerns than landed women. So what matters is not just including more women, but more poor women. Second, and unexpectedly, groups with more women typically made stricter forest use rules. Why is this the case? Mainly because they receive poorer forest from the forest department. To regenerate these they have to sacrifice their immediate needs. Women from household with some land have some fallback. But remarkably even in groups with more landless women, although extraction is higher, they still balance self-interest with conservation goals, when placed in decision-making positions.
Third, groups with more women outperform other groups in improving forest conditions, despite getting poorer forest. Involving women substantially improves protection and conflict resolution, helps the use of their knowledge of local biodiversity, and raises children’s awareness about conservation.
1. What was author’s view on “Social Forestry Scheme”?
(1) A great success
(2) Beneficial for villagers
(3) Neither good nor bad
(4) Should have been implemented as ‘top-down’
(5) None of these
2. Which of the following is one of the reason of forest being a conflict-ridden issue?
(1) Some countries have larger forest cover
(2) There is less awareness about global warming
(3) High dependence of many of forests
(4) Less representation of women
(5) Less representation of local women
3. The author is advocating inclusion of—
(1) More landless women
(2) More landed women
(3) More women irrespective of their financial status
(4) Local people
(5) Younger women in the age group of 25-33 years
4. Which of the following best describes “participatory exclusion”, as used in the interview?
(1) Outside support
(2) Overdependence
(3) Benefitting without self interest
(4) Contributing with profits
(5) None of these
5. In the second question the interviewer asked- Is more an evolution of argument here?’ Which of the following best describes that?
(1) From Barren to Greener slopes
(2) From local group to local groups with more women
(3) A fine balance between conservation and commercial forestry
(4) Too-down approach to Community forestry
(5) Participatory excision to Greener slopes
6. What percent of female members tin the Executive Committee for Forest Management is being recommended by the author?
(1) Less than 25%
(2) More than 25%
(3) 100%
(4) About 75%
(5) None of these
7. Why does author say, ‘Rural women’s relationship with forests is complex’?
(1) Dependence forces them to extracts and also have concern for conservation
(2) If they project forests, their livelihood is severely affected
(3) Poor women have been excluded from forest management
(4) They cannot be asked to restore forests which are critical for them
(5) Greener forests do not meet the requirement of firewood
8. Landless women, when in decision making role—
(1) extract much more from forest
(2) improve their own financial status
(3) do not care for forest
(4) are able to need conservation objectives as well as their own interest
(5) fulfill their own interest at the cost of conservation goals
9. When more women are involved, which of the following also happens?
(1) They get poorer forests
(2) They come to know about conservation needs
(3) Children become more aware abut conservation
(4) They are able to devote more time to conversation
(5) They get a more comprehensive understanding of local biodiversity
10. controlling
(1) holding in check
(2) increasing
(3) decreasing
(4) passing
(5) ignoring
Read the following interview and answer the given questions based on that. Some words have been printed in bold to help you locate them white answering some of the questions.
A pioneering new book, Gender and Green Governance, explores a central question: If women adequate representation of forestry institution, would make a difference to them the communities and forests as a national resource? Interview with the author. Why has access to forests been such a conflictridden issue?
This is not surprising. Forests constitute not just community and national wealth, but global wealth. But for millions, forests are also critical for livelihoods and their daily lives. Your first book, Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes (1986), was about forest. Is there an evolution of argument here?
Yes indeed. In Cold Hearths and Barren Slopes, I had argued that social forestry, with its-down implementation and focus on commercial species, was neither ‘social’ nor ‘forestry’, and would protect neither forests nor village livelihoods. The answer, I argues, lay in allowing forest communities to mange local forests. Finally, in 1990, India launched the joint forest management programme and Nepal also started community forestry. So I decided to see for myself how community forestry was actually doing.
Between 1995 and 1999, I travelled extensively across India and Nepal and found a paradox. Forests were indeed becoming greener but women’s problem of firewood shortages persisted and in many cases had become more acute. Also, despite their high stakes in forest, women continued to be largely excluded from forest management. I coined the term “participatory exclusions” to describe this. However, the current book is less about women’s exclusion. I ask: What if women were present in forest governance? What difference would that make? But has this question not been raised before? Economists researching environment collective action have paid little attention to gender. Scholars from other disciplines focusing on gender and governance have been concerned mainly with women’s near absence from governance institutions. The presumption is that once women are present all good things will follow. But can we assume this? No. Rural women relationship with forest is complex. On the one hand, their everyday dependence on forests for firewood, fodder, etc, creates a strong stake in conversation. On the other, the same dependence can compel them to extract heavily from forest. As one landless women told me: “Of course, it hurts me to cut a green branch but what do I do if my children are hungry?” Taking an agnostic position, I decide to test varied propositions, controlling for otherfactors.
What did you find? First, women’s greater presence enhance enhances their effective voice in decision-making. And there is a critical mass effect: If forest management groups have 25-33 per cent female members in their executive committees it significantly increases the likelihood of women makes a particular difference. When present in sufficient number they are more likely to attend meetings and voice their concerns than landed women. So what matters is not just including more women, but more poor women. Second, and unexpectedly, groups with more women typically made stricter forest use rules. Why is this the case? Mainly because they receive poorer forest from the forest department. To regenerate these they have to sacrifice their immediate needs. Women from household with some land have some fallback. But remarkably even in groups with more landless women, although extraction is higher, they still balance self-interest with conservation goals, when placed in decision-making positions.
Third, groups with more women outperform other groups in improving forest conditions, despite getting poorer forest. Involving women substantially improves protection and conflict resolution, helps the use of their knowledge of local biodiversity, and raises children’s awareness about conservation.
1. What was author’s view on “Social Forestry Scheme”?
(1) A great success
(2) Beneficial for villagers
(3) Neither good nor bad
(4) Should have been implemented as ‘top-down’
(5) None of these
2. Which of the following is one of the reason of forest being a conflict-ridden issue?
(1) Some countries have larger forest cover
(2) There is less awareness about global warming
(3) High dependence of many of forests
(4) Less representation of women
(5) Less representation of local women
3. The author is advocating inclusion of—
(1) More landless women
(2) More landed women
(3) More women irrespective of their financial status
(4) Local people
(5) Younger women in the age group of 25-33 years
4. Which of the following best describes “participatory exclusion”, as used in the interview?
(1) Outside support
(2) Overdependence
(3) Benefitting without self interest
(4) Contributing with profits
(5) None of these
5. In the second question the interviewer asked- Is more an evolution of argument here?’ Which of the following best describes that?
(1) From Barren to Greener slopes
(2) From local group to local groups with more women
(3) A fine balance between conservation and commercial forestry
(4) Too-down approach to Community forestry
(5) Participatory excision to Greener slopes
6. What percent of female members tin the Executive Committee for Forest Management is being recommended by the author?
(1) Less than 25%
(2) More than 25%
(3) 100%
(4) About 75%
(5) None of these
7. Why does author say, ‘Rural women’s relationship with forests is complex’?
(1) Dependence forces them to extracts and also have concern for conservation
(2) If they project forests, their livelihood is severely affected
(3) Poor women have been excluded from forest management
(4) They cannot be asked to restore forests which are critical for them
(5) Greener forests do not meet the requirement of firewood
8. Landless women, when in decision making role—
(1) extract much more from forest
(2) improve their own financial status
(3) do not care for forest
(4) are able to need conservation objectives as well as their own interest
(5) fulfill their own interest at the cost of conservation goals
9. When more women are involved, which of the following also happens?
(1) They get poorer forests
(2) They come to know about conservation needs
(3) Children become more aware abut conservation
(4) They are able to devote more time to conversation
(5) They get a more comprehensive understanding of local biodiversity
10. controlling
(1) holding in check
(2) increasing
(3) decreasing
(4) passing
(5) ignoring
Computer Knowledge
Computer Knowledge
1. You can keep your personal files/folders in—
(1) My folder
(2) My Document
(3) My Files
(4) My Text
(5) None of these
2. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into—
(1) Wed sites
(2) information
(3) programs
(4) objects
(5) None of these
3. A directory within a directory is called—
(1) Mini Directory
(2) Junior Directory
(3) Part Directory
(4) Sub Directory
(5) None of these
4. A complier translates a program written in a high-level language into—
(1) Machine language
(2) An algorithm
(3) A debugged program
(4) Java
(5) None o these
5. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test—
(1) RAM test
(2) disk drive test
(3) memory test
(4) power-on self-test
(5) None of these
6. A _______ is a unique name that you give to a file information—
(1) device letter
(2) folder
(3) filename
(4) filename extension
(5) None of these
7. Hardware includes ________.
(1) all devices used to input data into a computer
(2) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes
(3) the computer and all the devices connected to it that used to input and output data
(4) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory, and storage
(5) None of these
8. A _______ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(1) programming language
(2) syntax
(3) programming structure
(4) logic chart
(5) None of these
9. All the deleted files go to—
(1) Recycle Bin
(2) Task Bar
(3) Tool Bar
(4) My Computer
(5) None of these
10. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is—
(1) multiprogramming
(2) multitasking
(3) time-sharing
(4) multiprocessing
(5) None of these
1. You can keep your personal files/folders in—
(1) My folder
(2) My Document
(3) My Files
(4) My Text
(5) None of these
2. The primary purpose of software is to turn data into—
(1) Wed sites
(2) information
(3) programs
(4) objects
(5) None of these
3. A directory within a directory is called—
(1) Mini Directory
(2) Junior Directory
(3) Part Directory
(4) Sub Directory
(5) None of these
4. A complier translates a program written in a high-level language into—
(1) Machine language
(2) An algorithm
(3) A debugged program
(4) Java
(5) None o these
5. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform this test—
(1) RAM test
(2) disk drive test
(3) memory test
(4) power-on self-test
(5) None of these
6. A _______ is a unique name that you give to a file information—
(1) device letter
(2) folder
(3) filename
(4) filename extension
(5) None of these
7. Hardware includes ________.
(1) all devices used to input data into a computer
(2) sets of instructions that a computer runs or executes
(3) the computer and all the devices connected to it that used to input and output data
(4) all devices involved in processing information including the central processing unit, memory, and storage
(5) None of these
8. A _______ contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
(1) programming language
(2) syntax
(3) programming structure
(4) logic chart
(5) None of these
9. All the deleted files go to—
(1) Recycle Bin
(2) Task Bar
(3) Tool Bar
(4) My Computer
(5) None of these
10. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is—
(1) multiprogramming
(2) multitasking
(3) time-sharing
(4) multiprocessing
(5) None of these
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